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hbc0728 · 2022年03月10日

还请老师帮忙解释一下D选项,谢谢

NO.PZ2016072602000054

问题如下:

Which of the following is not a drawback of the Basel II foundation internal ratings-based (IRB) approach?

选项:

A.

PDs and LGDs are assumed to be uncorrelated.

B.

Asset correlations decrease with increasing PDs.

C.

The portfolio of the financial institution is assumed to be infinitely granular.

D.

The approach uses a single risk factor portfolio model instead of a multiple risk factor model.

解释:

B is correct. In practice, PDs and LGDs are positively correlated, so statement a. is a problem. Years with higher PDs are associated with higher LGDs. Portfolios may not be highly granular, so statement c. is a problem. The portfolio may be exposed to multiple common risk factors, so statement d. is a problem. In contrast, we do observe in practice that low credits tend to have more idiosyncratic risk, which means that high PDs have low correlations.

FIRB是如何区分单风险因子与多风险因子的

1 个答案
已采纳答案

DD仔_品职助教 · 2022年03月11日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


同学你好,

只考虑到了系统性风险的模型就是单因子模型,除了系统性风险以外还考虑到了其他风险因子的模型就是多因子模型。

FIRB法下我们只学习了渐进单因子模型,没有提到任何关于多因子模型的事情,所以d是一个问题,不选他。

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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

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