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tracy · 2022年03月03日

share price等于book value就说明终值是0吗?

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NO.PZ201512300100001208

问题如下:

8. Under Scenario 2, the intrinsic value per share of the equity of Amersheen is closest to:

选项:

A.

R13.29.

B.

R15.57.

C.

R16.31.

解释:

As the multistage residual income model results in an intrinsic value of R13.29. The multistage residual income model, is:

The first step is to calculate residual income per share for years 2012 2014:

ROE = earnings / book value

Growth rate = ROE × retention rate

Retention rate = 1  (dividends/earnings)

Book valuet = book valuet 1 + earningst 1  dividendst 1

Residual income per share = EPS  equity charge per share

Equity charge per share = book value per sharet × cost of equity

Under Scenario 2, at the end of 2014, it is assumed that share price will be equal to book value per share. This results in the second term in the

equation above, the present value of the terminal value, being equal to zero.

Then, intrinsic value per share is:

V0=R7.60+R2.52(1.10)+R2.31(1.10)2+R1.98(1.10)3=R13.29

share price等于book value就说明终值是0吗?

1 个答案

王园圆_品职助教 · 2022年03月03日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


同学你好,请看以下讲义截图,这是上课时老师总结的4种求解RI的情况,其中我们看最后一种情况

当book value就等于price的时候,P/B等于1,带入最后一个公式可得PVRI=0哦~~


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NO.PZ201512300100001208问题如下8. Unr Scenario 2, the intrinsic value per share of the equity of Amersheen is closest to:A.R13.29.B.R15.57.C.R16.31.the multistage resiincome mol results in intrinsic value of R13.29. The multistage resiincome mol, is: The first step is to calculate resiincome per share for years 2012 2014:ROE = earnings / book valueGrowth rate = ROE × retention rateRetention rate = 1 (vin/earnings)Book valuet = book valuet 1 + earningst 1 vint 1Resiincome per share = EPS equity charge per shareEquity charge per share = book value per sharet × cost of equityUnr Scenario 2, the enof 2014, it is assumethshare priwill equto book value per share. This results in the seconterm in theequation above, the present value of the terminvalue, being equto zero.Then, intrinsic value per share is:V0=R7.60+R2.52(1.10)+R2.31(1.10)2+R1.98(1.10)3=R13.29按照定义,现值PV0=BV0+PVRI,PVRI=PV0-BV0,PVRI=PV0/BV0*BV0-BV0,PVRI=P/B*BV0-BV0,题目里说的是2014年末股价share price等于账面BV,并没有说PV等于BV,如何得出P/B=1呢?

2024-10-01 18:31 1 · 回答

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2021-08-20 07:11 2 · 回答

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2020-05-31 11:44 1 · 回答