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moon · 2022年03月03日

问题

NO.PZ2018111501000019

问题如下:

One of the non-EUR currency exposures in the Portfolio is GBP. Aron frequently adjusts his GBP positions based on his short-term tactical outlook. Aron forecasts that the GBP will appreciate by 5% against the USD over the next six months. The current USD/GBP rate is 1.60 (1 GBP = 1.60 USD). Aron is considering the six-month European option positions with the primary objective of increasing his GBP exposure in line with his forecast, and a secondary objective of minimizing the initial cash outlay. Which of the trades below will most likely satisfy Aron’s objectives at expiration?

选项:

A.

Trade 1: Buy call with 1.68 strike, sell call with 1.72 strike.

B.

Trade 2: Buy call with 1.60 strike, sell call with 1.68 strike.

C.

Trade 3: Buy call with 1.60 strike, sell call with 1.72 strike.

解释:

B is correct.

考点:Strategies to Modify Risk and Lower Hedging Costs

解析:预测GBP会增值,所以Buy call with 1.60 strike,未来的增值会使Aron1.6的现价基础上获益。由于增值幅度为5% 1.6*1+5%=1.68,所以sell call with 1.68 strike可以降低成本。

现在汇率是s0=1.6USD/GBP,预测GBP会升值


那为什么不long OTM GBP,比如x=1.68,这样long方支付的call option更便宜,而且未来汇率本身也会涨到1.68

1 个答案

Hertz_品职助教 · 2022年03月04日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


同学你好

问题:那为什么不long OTM GBP,比如x=1.68,这样long方支付的call option更便宜,而且未来汇率本身也会涨到1.68

回答:

同学你说的应该是为什么不long OTM call吧,也就是为什么不long X=1.68的call。

这样,首先我们为什么要long call呢?是不是预测汇率会涨,这样的话我们就可以按照指向价格买一个高于执行价格的东西了,我们就赚了。现在我们预测汇率只能涨到1.68,那么我们long 1.68的call会发生什么?long了这个call只有汇率超过1.68的时候我们才会行权,但是题目说了就只能涨到1.68,就是说如果我们买了一个行权价位1.68的call,期权费是便宜了,但是永远行不了权,就是白白支付了期权费,没有任何作用的。

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