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mosquito三颗猫 · 2022年01月27日

请问答案说的P4和P2分别是什么?如果是用骑乘策略,不应该是站在第2年末分别算出4年和2年零息债券的价格吗?

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NO.PZ201701230200000203

问题如下:

3. In presenting Investment 2, Smith should show an annual return closest to:

选项:

A.

4.31%.

B.

5.42%.

C.

6.53%.

解释:

C is correct.

The swap spread is a common way to indicate credit spreads in a market. The four-year swap rate (fixed leg of an interest rate swap) can be used as an indication of the four-year corporate yield. Riding the yield curve by purchasing a four-year zero-coupon bond with a yield of 4.75% {i.e., 4.05% + 0.70%, [P4 = 100/(1 + 0.0475)4 = 83.058]} and then selling it when it becomes a two-year zero-coupon bond with a yield of 3.00% {i.e., 2.70% +0.30%, [P2 = 100/(1 + 0.0300)2 = 94.260]} produces an annual return of 6.53%: (94.260/83.058)0.5 - 1.0 = 0.0653.

请问答案说的P4和P2分别是什么?如果是用骑乘策略,不应该是站在第2年末分别算出4年和2年零息债券的价格吗?

1 个答案

pzqa015 · 2022年01月27日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


不是的

骑乘效应的原理是这样的:

收益率曲线向上倾斜且预期收益率曲线不变,如果投资期是2年,可以买入剩余到期日大于2年的债,在2年后卖出,那么这两年的收益是大于期初就买入与持有期一致(2年)债券的收益的。

比如本题:

站在现在,买入4年期债券,买入价格是100/(1+4.75%)^4=83.058460,这是P4。

2年后,期初买入的4年期债券现在还有2年到期,那么此时的卖出价格与期初2年期债券的价格是一样的(因为收益率曲线不变,所以折现得到的债券价格不变),期初2年期债券的价格是100/(1+3%)^2=94.259591,这是P2,是2年后卖出手中4年期债券的价格。

那么持有两年的收益根据p0*(1+r)^2=pt,P4是公式中的p0,P2是公式中的pt。

得到r=6.53%

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NO.PZ201701230200000203问题如下3. In presenting Investment 2, Smith shoulshow annureturn closest to:A.4.31%.B.5.42%.C.6.53%.C is correct. The swspreis a common wto incate cret sprea in a market. The four-yeswrate (fixeleg of interest rate swap) cuseincation of the four-yecorporate yiel Ring the yielcurve purchasing a four-yezero-coupon bonwith a yielof 4.75% {i.e., 4.05% + 0.70%, [P4 = 100/(1 + 0.0475)4 = 83.058]} anthen selling it when it becomes a two-yezero-coupon bonwith a yielof 3.00% {i.e., 2.70% +0.30%, [P2 = 100/(1 + 0.0300)2 = 94.260]} proces annureturn of 6.53%: (94.260/83.058)0.5 - 1.0 = 0.0653.所以ring the yiel赚的是extra coupon reinvestment return 吧?

2024-07-07 12:45 1 · 回答

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