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开泰-王飞 · 2022年01月08日

这题如果用画图法求value,swap rate用3%还是1.12%?

* 问题详情,请 查看题干

NO.PZ202108100100000202

问题如下:

From the bank’s perspective, using data from Exhibit 1, the current value of the swap described in Exhibit 2 is closest to:

选项:

A.

-$2,951,963.

B.

-$1,849,897.

C.

-$1,943,000.

解释:

B is correct.

The value of a swap from the perspective of the receive-fixed (pay floating) party is calculated as

V=NA×FS0FSt×i=1nPViV=NA\times(FS_0-FS_t)\times{\textstyle\sum_{i=1}^n}PV_i

The swap has two years remaining until expiration. The sum of the present values for Years 1 and 2 is

i=1nPVi=0.990099+0.977876=1.967975\textstyle\sum_{i=1}^nPV_i=0.990099+0.977876=1.967975

Given the current equilibrium two-year swap rate of 1.12% and the fixed swap rate at initiation of 3.00%, the swap value per dollar notional is calculated as

V = 1×(0.03 – 0.0112) x 1.967975 = 0.036998

The current value of the swap, from the perspective of the receive-fixed party, is $50,000,000 × 0.036998 = $1,849,897.

From the perspective of the bank, as the pay-fixed party, the value of the swap is –$1,849,897.

中文解析:

本题是考察的是用重新定价法来求value。

对于本题中付固定端的一方,在利率上升时会有收益。

根据题干信息可知FS0=3%,即0时刻签订此合约,价格为3%,但过了一年后合约的价格为FS1=1.12%。即价格下跌了,因此会有损失,最后的结果为负。

另外注意折现因子的选取要注意使用的是1年和2年的折现因子,因为此时站在t=1时刻,还有两笔互换要发生,分别是在一年以后和两年以后,因此折现因子的选取要注意。

最后根据公式:V=NA×FS0FSt×i=1nPViV=NA\times(FS_0-FS_t)\times{\textstyle\sum_{i=1}^n}PV_i

带入即可求得t=1时刻的价值。

1 个答案

lynn_品职助教 · 2022年01月09日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


画图法不用求重新定价后的适用利率1.12%。

画图法思路如下:t=1时刻向上箭头=50000000,向下箭头=50000000*3%*(0.990099+0.977876)+50000000*0.977876。用向上箭头减向下箭头,得到的值是-1845762.5,和重新定价法得到的结果一致,误差在于保留小数点的位数。 ”

画图法是这样:

按照重新定价的思路,图是这样的。

----------------------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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