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Othor · 2022年01月08日

请问为什么不是以价格计算出来的实际利率折现，而是用无风险利率折现呢？

  1. FRM II
  2. Market Risk Measurement And Management

NO.PZ2018122701000066

问题如下：

A 2-year zero-coupon bond with a face value of USD 1,000 is currently priced at USD 952.48. The firm uses a binominal pricing model with a 1-year time step for all of its valuations. If interest rates go down over the next year, the model estimates the bond’s value to be USD 970, and if interest rates go up over the next year, the model estimates the bond’s value to be USD 950. Using the risk-neutral probabilities implied by the model, and assuming the risk-free rate of interest is 1% per year, what should be the current value of a 1-year European call option on this bond with a strike price of USD 960?

选项：

A.

USD 3.96

B.

USD 5.94

C.

USD 6.00

D.

USD 9.90

解释：

B is correct.

考点 ： Interest Rate Tree (Binominal) Model

解析：假设价格上涨的概率为πu ，价格下跌的概率为πd =1- πu

[970*πu +950*（1-πu ）]/(1+1%)=952.48，求出πu=60%,πd =40%.

对于欧式看涨期权，执行价格为960，所以C+ =max(970-960,0)=10, C- =max(950-960,0)=0.

于是C0 =(10*60%+0*40%)/(1+1%)=5.94

请问为什么不是以价格计算出来的实际利率折现，而是用无风险利率折现呢？请问是在教材里哪里提到的？
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1 个答案

品职答疑小助手雍 · 2022年01月08日

同学你好，期权的价值折现，都是以无风险利率折现的，因为要做到风险中性。

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