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开泰-王飞 · 2022年01月08日

0.25时间点的那笔现金流为何不用加?

NO.PZ2019010402000012

问题如下:

A manger entered into a receive-fixed and pay-equity swap three months ago. The annualized fixed rate is 3% and equity index was at 100 when swap was entered. The maturity of swap is one year with quarterly reset, and notional amount is $100 million. The current spot rates are as follows:

The value of this equity swap would be zero if the equity index level is:

选项:

A.

100.753630

B.

100

C.

99.753630

解释:

A is correct.

考点:equity swap求value

解析:

已知value=0,反求此时equity index的价格。

首先画图:

一年期的swap,3个月之前进入的,所以时间轴如下,还剩3笔现金流。

对于fixed leg来说,我们只用将三笔现金流折现即可。

Valuefixedleg=3%×(90360)×100000000×(0.997506+0.992556+0.985222)+100,000,000×0.985222=100,753,663Value_{fixedleg=}3\%\times(\frac{90}{360})\times100000000\times(0.997506+0.992556+0.985222) +100,000,000\times0.985222\\=100,753,663

将现在index的价格设为X,那么equity leg的价值=X/100*100,000,000

头寸是付equity return收固定,所以value of swap=- X/100*100,000,000+100,753,630=0

可计算出X=100.753630

如何按照bond折现来讲的话,自己时点的那笔现金流应该算上吧?

1 个答案

lynn_品职助教 · 2022年01月09日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


因为是quarterly reset的,所以0.25时刻的现金流已经结算过了。fixed leg无需在考虑0.25时刻以及之前发生的现金流。

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