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追风少年NKU · 2021年11月20日

关于此题答案的解释

NO.PZ2020033002000085

问题如下:

Durian Bank's risk control manager is using Creditrisk + to calculate the bank's 1% credit var. Durian Bank now has two large loans, one is 20 million US dollars, the other is 30 million US dollars, the two are not correlated. Which of the following conclusions about credit var is wrong?

I.Both VaR and WCL could be equal to zero.

II.Expected loss could exceed VaR

III.Expected loss is always smaller than the VAR.

选项:

A.

I and III

B.

I ONLY

C.

I and II.

D.III.

解释:

D is correct.

考点:Credit VaR

解析:比如两笔贷款的违约概率都是0.5%,两者联立的不违约概率是0.995*0.995等于99.0025%。此时99%的credit var等于0。worst case loss也是0。而expected loss不为零,比var和wcl大。

你好,我看了答案解释有一点疑问如下:


如果两笔的PD都是0.5%,那么99%的WCL确实不是两笔都违约的情形(20+30),而是一笔违约一笔不违约了吧?WCL应该是30而不是0?

1 个答案

DD仔_品职助教 · 2021年11月20日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


两笔贷款PD都是0.5%,两笔一起不违约的概率是99.5%*99.5%=99.0025%。

99%被包含在了两笔一起不违约的99.0025%里,99.0025%的情况都是两个都不违约,WCL是0,那么99%WCL也是0。


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