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Meixf · 2021年10月17日

Fixed Income L3V4 P89 Exp8

题目和答案如下。题目没看懂,可以帮忙解释一下吗?答案是怎么用10-year non-callable,fixed-rate corp bond and use a swaption to mimic the characteristics of the embedded call option?



A derivatives consultant, a former head of interest rate swaps trading at a major

London bank, is asked by a Spanish corporation to devise an overlay strategy to

“effectively defease” a large debt liability. That means that there are dedicated

assets to retire the debt even if both assets and the liability remain on the balance

sheet. The corporation currently has enough euro- denominated cash assets to

retire the bonds, but its bank advises that acquiring the securities via a tender

offer at this time will be prohibitively expensive.

The 10- year fixed- rate bonds are callable at par value in three years. This is

a one- time call option. If the issuer does not exercise the option, the bonds are

then non- callable for the remaining time to maturity. The corporation’s CFO

anticipates higher benchmark interest rates in the coming years. Therefore, the

strategy of investing the available funds for three years and then calling the debt

is questionable because the embedded call option might be “out of the money”

when the call date arrives. Moreover, it is likely that the cost to buy the bonds

on the open market at that time will still be prohibitive.

The corporation has considered a cash flow matching approach by buying a

corporate bond having the same credit rating and a call structure (call date and

call price) close to the corporation’s own debt liability. The bank working with

the CFO has been unable to identify an acceptable bond, however. Instead, the

bank suggests that the corporation buy a 10- year non- callable, fixed- rate corporate

bond and use a swaption to mimic the characteristics of the embedded call

option. The idea is to transform the callable bond (the liability) into a non- callable

security synthetically using the swaption. Then the newly purchased non- callable

bond “effectively” defeases the transformed “non- callable” debt liability.

To confirm the bank’s recommendation for the derivatives overlay, the CFO

turns to the derivatives consultant, asking if the corporation should (1) buy a

payer swaption, (2) buy a receiver swaption, (3) write a payer swaption, or (4)

write a receiver swaption. The time frames for the swaptions correspond to the

embedded call option. They are “3y7y” contracts, an option to enter a sevenyear

interest rate swap in three years. The CFO also asks the consultant about

the risks to the recommended swaption position.

1 Indicate the swaption position that the derivatives consultant should recommend

to the corporation.


Solution to 1:

The derivatives consultant should recommend that the corporation choose the

fourth option and write a receiver swaption—that is, an option that gives the

swaption buyer the right to enter into a swap to receive fixed and pay floating.

When the corporation issued the callable bond, it effectively bought the call

option, giving the corporation the flexibility to refinance at a lower cost of borrowed

funds if benchmark rates and/or the corporation’s credit spread narrows.

Writing the receiver swaption “sells” that call option, and the corporation captures

the value of the embedded call option by means of the premium received.

Suppose that market rates in three years are higher than the strike rate on the

swaption and the yield on the debt security. Then both options—the embedded

call option in the bond liability, as well as the swaption—expire out of the money


The asset and liability both have seven years until maturity and are non- callable.

Suppose instead that market rates fall and bond prices go up. Both options

are now in the money. The corporation sells the seven- year bonds (the assets)

and uses the proceeds to call the debt liabilities at par value. The gain on that

transaction offsets the loss on closing out the swaption with the counterparty.




2 个答案

pzqa015 · 2022年10月12日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


抱歉,笔误,负债端是short callable bond(而不是Long callable bond),它等于short non callable bond+long call option on the bond。

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

pzqa015 · 2021年10月17日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


公司的负债:10年期的fixed rate callable bond,第三年可以行驶callable 权力。

想投资一只同样的embedded call option bond,让资产端的现金流可以覆盖负债的现金流,从而实现effectively defease。

但是,现在找不到这样一只合适的embedded call option bond去投资,所以,银行建议公司买一只10年期non callable,fixed rate bond,同时,用swaption来合成一个callable bond的现金流,第一问问的是应该选择什么样的swaption。

所以,第一问让做的事情就是:long non callable fixed coupon bond+long/short what swaption=long callable fixed coupon bond。选出long头寸还是short头寸,并选出用的swaption类型。

 

下面来解析这道题的思路:

负债端:long callable bond=short non callable bond+long call option on bond。

利率上升,call option不行权,负债端就是一个普通的10年期non callable bond.

利率下降,call option行权,负债端变成一个3年期non callable bond。

资产端要按照负债端的现金流来构造。

利率上升,资产端仍是一个non callable bond,也就是swaption不行权,所以在payer swaption和receiver swaption中选出用receiver swaption而不是payer swaption。

利率下降,资产端要变成一个3年期债券,也就是说receiver swaption行权了,

如果是long receiver swaption,那么衍生品头寸利率下降是有profit的,本来利率下降时Long noncallable bond的现货头寸就有profit(利率下降,债券估值上升),资产端现货与期货都有profit,而负债端并没有profit,从这个角度说,资产负债是不相等的;

如果short receiver swaption,那么利率下降swaption头寸有亏损,与long non callable bond在利率下降的profit可以相互抵消,所以,应该用short receiver swaption.


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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

今天也要摸鱼 · 2022年10月12日

为什么liability的头寸(callable bond)是 long callable bond=short non callable bond+long call option on bond callable bond的头寸不应该是long non callable bond + short call option嘛?

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