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nanaluo · 2021年09月27日

请解释下这道题的考点和答案

NO.PZ2016062402000046

问题如下:

Assume you are using a GARCH model to forecast volatility that you use to calculate the one-day VAR. If volatility is mean reverting, what can you say about the T-day VAR?

选项:


 

A.

It is less than the T×\sqrt T\timesone-day VAR.

B.

It is equal to T×\sqrt T\timesone-day VAR.

C.

It is greater than the T×\sqrt T\timesone-day VAR.

D.

It could be greater or less than the T×\sqrt T\timesone-day VAR

解释:

If the initial volatility were equal to the long-run volatility, then the T-day VAR could be computed using the square root of time rule, assuming normal distributions. If the starting volatility were higher, then the T-day VAR should be less than the T×\sqrt T\times one-day VAR. Conversely, if the starting volatility were lower, then the T-day VAR should be more than the long-run value. However, the question does not indicate the starting point. Hence, answer d. is correct.

没有理解这道题的解释

1 个答案

李坏_品职助教 · 2021年09月27日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


这道题问的是,如果波动率(其实就是标准差)带有mean-reverting(均值回归)的性质,就是说标准差不会偏离Long-term volatility太多。


因为题目里没有说一开始波动率处在什么位置,存在两种可能:


  1. 假如一开始波动率高于Longer-term volatility,那么T天的波动率应该会下降。我们计算的σ*√T是按照目前过高的波动率σ算出来的,所以真实的T-day σ应该会比σ*√T低一些。
  2. 假如一开始波动率低于Longer-term volatility,那么T天的波动率应该会上升。我们计算的σ*√T是按照目前过低的波动率σ算出来的,所以真实的T-day σ应该会比σ*√T高一些。




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