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玛卡巴卡 · 2021年09月17日

vega notional

NO.PZ2018113001000052

问题如下:

Olivia, a fund manager, sells $50,000 vega notional of a one-year variance swap on the S&P 500 at a strike of 20% (quoted as annual volatility).

Now six months have passed, and the S&P 500 has experienced a realized volatility of 16% (annualized). On the same day, the fair strike of a new six-month variance swap on the S&P 500 is 19%.

The the current value of the variance swap sold by Olivia (note that the annual interest rate is 2.5%) is:

选项:

A.

$112,963

B.

$ 998,653

C.

$ 159,228

解释:

A is correct.

Volatility strike on existing swap = 20.

Variance strike on existing swap = 20^2 = 400.

Variance notional = Vega notional/(2*Strike)=50000/(2*20)=1250.

RealizedVol(0,6)^2 = 16^2 = 256.

ImpliedVol(6,12)^2 = 19^2 = 361.

PVt(T) = 1/[1 + (2.5% × 6/12)] = 0.987654

The current value of the swap is

VarSwapt = 1,250 × (0.987654) × [(6/12) × 256 + (6/12) × 361 – 400]

= –$112,962.9263.

Given that Olivia is short the variance swap, the mark-to-market value is positive for her, and it equals $112,963.

请问公司里FV是什么意思?为什么需要乘以FV?公式不太理解

1 个答案
已采纳答案

Hertz_品职助教 · 2021年09月18日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


同学你好~

你说的应该是公式里的PV对吧,没有FV的哈

PV是折现因子,在本题的解析中也有对其的计算,可以看到就是从T折现到t的一个计算,只是为了方便给他取了一个名字叫做折现因子而已。

看一下这个公式:求的是在t时刻variance swap。后面大括号里的是在合约在T时刻实现的volatility,但由于被t时刻分成了两部分,前一段是0-t,后一段是t到T,因此中括号里面的相当于一个加权平均的概念。然后实现的volatility减去行权的volatility X 的平方,就得到了T时刻的value,然后用折现因子折现到t时刻,就是所求了。(如果同学对这个公式还是很有疑问,也可以看一下基础班视频,在下面路径下,2倍速4分钟左右的视频哈)

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努力的时光都是限量版,加油!

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NO.PZ2018113001000052 问题如下 Olivia funmanager, sells $50,000 vega notionof a one-yevarianswon the S P 500 a strike of 20% (quoteannuvolatility).Now six months have passe anthe S P 500 hexperiencea realizevolatility of 16% (annualize. On the same y, the fair strike of a new six-month varianswon the S P 500 is 19%.The the current value of the varianswsolOlivia (note ththe annuinterest rate is 2.5%) is: A.$112,963 B.$ 998,653 C.$ 159,228 A is correct.Volatility strike on existing sw= 20.Varianstrike on existing sw= 20^2 = 400.Variannotion= Vega notional/(2*Strike)=50000/(2*20)=1250.Realizeol(0,6)^2 = 16^2 = 256.Implieol(6,12)^2 = 19^2 = 361.PVt(T) = 1/[1 + (2.5% × 6/12)] = 0.987654The current value of the swisVarSwapt = 1,250 × (0.987654) × [(6/12) × 256 + (6/12) × 361 – 400]= –$112,962.9263.Given thOlivia is short the varianswap, the mark-to-market value is positive for her, anit equals $112,963.中文解析本题考察的是对varianswap求value。直接带入公式计算即可。需要注意以下两点1. 该公式是站在long position的角度,而本题问的是short position,因此注意最后的结果需要加负号2. strike,implievolatility以及realizevolatility在代入计算时,不加百分号,只取百分号前面的数字。 这里给的前半年实现的volatile是16%,这个是年化的。如果算半年的,为什么不用8%呢?谢谢?

2024-08-21 23:46 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2018113001000052 问题如下 Olivia funmanager, sells $50,000 vega notionof a one-yevarianswon the S P 500 a strike of 20% (quoteannuvolatility).Now six months have passe anthe S P 500 hexperiencea realizevolatility of 16% (annualize. On the same y, the fair strike of a new six-month varianswon the S P 500 is 19%.The the current value of the varianswsolOlivia (note ththe annuinterest rate is 2.5%) is: A.$112,963 B.$ 998,653 C.$ 159,228 A is correct.Volatility strike on existing sw= 20.Varianstrike on existing sw= 20^2 = 400.Variannotion= Vega notional/(2*Strike)=50000/(2*20)=1250.Realizeol(0,6)^2 = 16^2 = 256.Implieol(6,12)^2 = 19^2 = 361.PVt(T) = 1/[1 + (2.5% × 6/12)] = 0.987654The current value of the swisVarSwapt = 1,250 × (0.987654) × [(6/12) × 256 + (6/12) × 361 – 400]= –$112,962.9263.Given thOlivia is short the varianswap, the mark-to-market value is positive for her, anit equals $112,963.中文解析本题考察的是对varianswap求value。直接带入公式计算即可。需要注意以下两点1. 该公式是站在long position的角度,而本题问的是short position,因此注意最后的结果需要加负号2. strike,implievolatility以及realizevolatility在代入计算时,不加百分号,只取百分号前面的数字。 请问题目中variance已经是Volatility的平方概念,为何公式里还是需要用平方计算?

2024-04-20 17:50 2 · 回答

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2024-01-29 11:35 1 · 回答

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2022-04-18 00:17 1 · 回答

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2022-02-23 21:20 1 · 回答