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菱秋秋 · 2021年09月12日

请问B为什么是错的,C、D为什么是对的呢?看不太懂答案

NO.PZ2018122701000067

问题如下:

Model 1 assumes zero drift and is also called a normal model. Model 2 add a term for drift. Each of the following is true about these two models except for:

选项:

A.

A weakness of Model 1 is that the short-term rate can become negative.

B.

Model 1 implies a term structure that is perfectly flat at the current rate for all maturities, including the long-term rates.

C.

Model 2 is more capable of producing an upward-sloping term structure, which is often observed.

D.

Model 2 is an equilibrium model, rather than an arbitrage-free model, because no attempt is made to match the term structure closely.

解释:

B is correct.

考点 Term Structure Models

解析 Under Model 1, it is true that the middle node recombines to the same current node. But these are future short-term rates; they are not the term structure: the term structure is spot rates at all maturities. Models that take the initial term structure implied by market prices are called arbitrage-free models. A different approach, however, is to start with assumptions about the interest rate process and about the risk premium demanded by the market for bearing interest rate risk and then derive the risk-neutral process. Models of this sort do not necessarily match the initial term structure and are called equilibrium models.

请问B为什么是错的,C、D为什么是对的呢?看不太懂答案

1 个答案

品职答疑小助手雍 · 2021年09月13日

同学你好,model1 假设了波动项,所以整个利率曲线是有波动的,B说perfectly flat显然是错的。

一般利率曲线长期利率都比短期高,所以C说有一个向上的趋势项的model2和现实更匹配,是对的。

以初始的bond价格为假设,作出无风险套利的模型叫做arbitrage-free models,我们学的这几个模型都不是这么做的;而是从对利率过程和市场对承担利率风险所要求的风险溢价的假设开始,然后推导出风险中性过程,属于equilibrium model,所以D是对的(这点不算是重点了,了解一下就行。)

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