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玛卡巴卡 · 2021年09月10日

如下

* 问题详情,请 查看题干

NO.PZ201812020100000401

问题如下:

The investment process followed by DFC’s previous fixed-income manager is best described as:

选项:

A.

asset-driven liabilities.

B.

liability-driven investing.

C.

asset–liability management.

解释:

C is correct.

Asset–liability management strategies consider both assets and liabilities in the portfolio decision-making process. Mowery notes that DFC’s previous fixed-income manager attempted to control for interest rate risk by focusing on both the asset and the liability side of the company’s balance sheet. The previous manager thus followed an asset–liability management strategy.

这道题读下来就是说分析师先分析liab的情况,然后基于liag的情况调整A,这不就是liab 驱动的意思么?即LDI,哪里体现是A和L都分析呢,如果是AL都分析,为什么分析A的时候要基于L呢?

1 个答案

pzqa015 · 2021年09月11日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


同学你好,

这道题问的是previous manager。

根据Monwery informs compton that DFC’s previous fixed income manager focused on the interest rate sensitivities of assets and liabilities when making asset allocation decisions.

我们可以判断出,previous manager采用ALM分析法。


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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!