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Shawnxz · 2021年07月27日

能解释一下为什么OTM会costs更低吗?

NO.PZ2018111501000016

问题如下:

Raymond, a US analyst, is managing a fund with EUR-denominated assets. In order to protect the assets from downside return movement, he decides to use option contracts. However, he also wants to reduce hedging costs. Assume the fund performance is measured in USD, he will most likely choose to:

选项:

A.

buy an USD/EUR ATM put option

B.

write an USD/EUR OTM call option

C.

buy an USD/EUR OTM put option.

解释:

C is correct.

考点:Strategies to Modify Risk and Lower Hedging Costs

解析:为了避免外汇资产下跌,应该买put option(注意是DC/FC的外汇报价方式),所以B选项排除。由于这个分析师需要降低对冲成本,那么选择OTM put option更符合他的要求。

能解释一下为什么OTM会costs更低吗?谢谢

1 个答案
已采纳答案

Hertz_品职助教 · 2021年07月27日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


同学你好~

我们举一个具体的例子来理解哈,比如现在股价是50,有两个看跌期权:

1.     期权1号,执行价格是40。则此时股票价格高于执行价格,该期权是OTM状态。

2.     期权2号,执行价格是50。则此时股票价格等于执行价格,该期权是ATM状态。

对于买看跌期权的人来讲,是想买一个在期权下跌时的保护,那么这个保护的保护力度越大就应该更贵,即购买这个保护时需要支出的成本就更高。

所以看一下期权1号和2号,很明显是期权2号可以提供更好的保护,因为此时股票价格等于执行价格,只要股票一跌,不论跌多跌少,都可以受到保护。但是对于期权1号来讲,只有股票从50跌到40以后再继续跌才可以提供保护,保护力度明显小于2号期权。

根据保护力度大的期权卖的贵的原则,2号期权就更贵,2号期权就是那个ATM的期权更贵。1号期权就是那个OTM的期权,就便宜,我们购买1号期权的时候支付的成本就低。

总结:ATM的put提供的保护力度高于OTM的put,保护力度越大成本就越高,保护力度越低,成本就越低。

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