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兔宝猪妈 · 2021年05月17日

请解释

NO.PZ2019010402000001

问题如下:

A trader is looking for an arbitrage opportunity relating to a bond futures based on following information:

  • Ÿ Quoted futures price=103
  • Ÿ Conversion factor=1.02
  • Ÿ One month remaining to expiration, no coupon during this period
  • Ÿ Quoted bond price=108
  • Ÿ AI0=0.1
  • Ÿ AIT=0.15
  • Ÿ Annual compounded risk-free rate=0.2%

The arbitrage profit is closest to:

选项:

A.

0.8965

B.

2.9075

C.

1.3253

解释:

B is correct.

考点:fixed-income futures定价

解析:

No-arbitrage futures price:

F0(T) =(108+0.1) (1 + 0.002)1/12-0.15=107.968

市场中的futures price=quoted futures price * CF=103*1.02=105.06

arbitrage profit应该是两个futures price之差的现值

所以arbitrage profit= (107.968105.06)(1+0.2%)1/12=2.9075\frac{(107.968-105.06)}{{(1+0.2\%)}^{1/12}}=2.9075

求No-arbitrage futures price画图:(该题合约期间没有coupon,所以PVC=0)

请问conversion factor是?
1 个答案
已采纳答案

WallE_品职答疑助手 · 2021年05月17日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


因为长期的债券是不规则的,一般超过10年的都可以归类于长期债券,当你购买长期债券的时候,其卖方有选择将最便宜的债券卖给你(cheapest to deliver),因此为了让买家得到的债券的价值公平一些,就引出了CF,来平衡长期债券的价值。因此QFP往往都会乘以一个CF

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就算太阳没有迎着我们而来,我们正在朝着它而去,加油!

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