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natalie2003 · 2021年05月09日

increasing his GBP exposure in line with his forecast的意思

NO.PZ2018111501000019

问题如下:

One of the non-EUR currency exposures in the Portfolio is GBP. Aron frequently adjusts his GBP positions based on his short-term tactical outlook. Aron forecasts that the GBP will appreciate by 5% against the USD over the next six months. The current USD/GBP rate is 1.60 (1 GBP = 1.60 USD). Aron is considering the six-month European option positions with the primary objective of increasing his GBP exposure in line with his forecast, and a secondary objective of minimizing the initial cash outlay. Which of the trades below will most likely satisfy Aron’s objectives at expiration?

选项:

A.

Trade 1: Buy call with 1.68 strike, sell call with 1.72 strike.

B.

Trade 2: Buy call with 1.60 strike, sell call with 1.68 strike.

C.

Trade 3: Buy call with 1.60 strike, sell call with 1.72 strike.

解释:

B is correct.

考点:Strategies to Modify Risk and Lower Hedging Costs

解析:预测GBP会增值,所以Buy call with 1.60 strike,未来的增值会使Aron1.6的现价基础上获益。由于增值幅度为5% 1.6*1+5%=1.68,所以sell call with 1.68 strike可以降低成本。

increasing his GBP exposure in line with his forecast的意思难道不是可以承受1.68的值么……在此之上才需要Hegde,我是这么理解的。

2 个答案

Hertz_品职助教 · 2022年02月14日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


@罗小惠

同学你好

主要是考虑两方面哈

1.     对于call option来说,执行价格越低,期权费越贵(因为call option是有权以执行价格买入标的股票,执行价格越低,说明越是可以以较低的价格来购买标的股票,对于买期权的一方越有利。越有利的期权买的时候就应该越贵,即对应的期权费应该是越贵),因此先不用考虑其他因素的话,对于执行价格为1.68和执行价格为1.72的call option,肯定是卖出执行价格为1.68的call,咱们可以拿到的期权费多。

2.     另外要考虑的因素是预测汇率只能涨到1.68(具体在解析中有哈),咱们不管他预测的准还是不准,咱们需要做的是依据他的预测选策略,既然最多涨到1.68,所以卖出执行价格为1.68和执行价格1.72的期权都无所谓,因为都涨不到1.72,涨不过1.68嘛。

3.     然后1和2综合考虑,就是sell 1.68的call了

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

Hertz_品职助教 · 2021年05月09日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


同学你好~

(1)increasing his GBP exposure in line with his forecast的意思是:Aron想根据他的预期来增加GBP的敞口,他的预期是GBP将会升值5%。因为现在USD/GBP=1.6,增加5%为1.68。

(2)根据题干的意思他在做一个“tactical ”的管理,想要通过这个GBP的升值获得一点收益。所以他预期GBP升值,就会long call on GBP,且行权及为1.6,这样的话只要GBP升值一点他就会获利。

(3)题干又说了他想“minimizing the initial cash outlay.”,所以他需要sell一个option,因为他预期GBP就涨到1.68,之后不会往上涨了,所以就卖出一个行权价为1.68的call来获取期权费以降低成本。

(所以说他是想基于GBP的5%的升值获得一点收益,并没有谈到hedge的问题哈)

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加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

罗小惠🌟 · 2022年02月14日

还是不太明白在选择sell option来赚期权费是为什么是选择1.68而不是1.70. 还想请教一下助教

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NO.PZ2018111501000019 问题如下 One of the non-EURcurrenexposures in the Portfolio is GBP. Aron frequently austs his GBPpositions baseon his short-term tacticoutlook. Aron forecasts ththe GBPwill appreciate 5% against the USover the next six months. The currentUSGrate is 1.60 (1 G= 1.60 US. Aron is consiring the six-monthEuropeoption positions with the primary objective of increasing his GBPexposure in line with his forecast, ana seconry objective of minimizing theiniticash outlay. Whiof the tras below will most likely satisfy Aron’sobjectives expiration? A.Tra 1: Buy call with 1.68 strike, sell callwith 1.72 strike. B.Tra 2: Buy call with 1.60 strike, sell callwith 1.68 strike. C.Tra 3: Buy call with 1.60 strike, sell callwith 1.72 strike. B is correct. 考点Strategies toMofy Risk anLower Heing Costs解析预测GBP会增值,所以Buy call with 1.60 strike,未来的增值会使Aron在1.6的现价基础上获益。由于增值幅度为5%, 1.6*(1+5%)=1.68,所以sell call with 1.68 strike可以降低成本。 1.72 更难实现,不是应该卖这个吗?

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