NO.PZ2016082406000034
问题如下:
Suppose XYZ Corp. has two bonds paying semiannually according to the following table:
The recovery rate for each in the event of default is 50%. For simplicity, assume that each bond will default only at the end of a coupon period. The market-implied risk-neutral probability of default for XYZ Corp. is
选项:
A. Greater
in the first six-month period than in the second
B. Equal
between the two coupon periods
C. Greater
in the second six-month period than in the first
D. Cannot
be determined from the information provided
解释:
ANSWER: A
First, we compute the current yield on the six-month bond, which is selling at a discount. We solve for y* such that and find . Thus the yield spread for the first bond is . The second bond is at par, so the yield is . The spread for the second bond is . The default rate for the first period must be greater. The recovery rate is the same for the two periods, so it does not matter for this problem.
请问这里为什么是y*/200?为什么是200呢