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我们 · 2021年03月29日

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NO.PZ2016082406000034

问题如下:

Suppose XYZ Corp. has two bonds paying semiannually according to the following table:

The recovery rate for each in the event of default is 50%. For simplicity, assume that each bond will default only at the end of a coupon period. The market-implied risk-neutral probability of default for XYZ Corp. is

选项:

A.

Greater in the first six-month period than in the second

B.

Equal between the two coupon periods

C.

Greater in the second six-month period than in the first

D.

Cannot be determined from the information provided

解释:

ANSWER: A

First, we compute the current yield on the six-month bond, which is selling at a discount. We solve for y* such that 99=1041+y20099\text{=}\frac{104}{1+\frac{y\ast}{200}} and find y=10.10%y\ast\text{=}10.10\%. Thus the yield spread for the first bond is 10.1-5.5=4.6%10.1\text{-}5.5\text{=}4.6\%. The second bond is at par, so the yield is y=9%y\ast\text{=}9\%. The spread for the second bond is   9-6=3%\;9\text{-}6\text{=}3\%. The default rate for the first period must be greater. The recovery rate is the same for the two periods, so it does not matter for this problem.

请问这里为什么是y*/200?为什么是200呢
1 个答案

品职答疑小助手雍 · 2021年03月29日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


其实就是求年化的折现率啦,你把这个式子里的y当成不带百分号的数字,这个y/200就变成了y%/2了。(因为这里是半年期债券的折现,所以除以2)

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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!

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