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ciaoyy · 2017年12月24日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000029 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

    

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:


CF0=-1000,

CF1=-4000+1000*15%=-3,850,

CF2=-45,000+(4000+1000(1+15%))*14%=-44279,   

CF3=(45,000+(4000+1000(1+15%))(1+14%))*0.96= 48836.16

得IRR=  -0.53,错在哪里?

ciaoyy · 2017年12月25日

主要是第三期的CF错在哪里?

2 个答案
已采纳答案

源_品职助教 · 2017年12月25日

之前你问了一道类似题目,完整的现金流我已经写给你了,你可以参考一下,

这题你主要错误在于,每期投资的回报没有拿到手,所以不计入下一期的本金。本金及其投资会的回收要全部放在最后一期计算。

ciaoyy · 2017年12月26日

谢谢,明白啦。

源_品职助教 · 2017年12月26日

不客气的,加油

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