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H. · 2020年11月10日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016021705000022

问题如下:

Dot.Com has determined that it could issue $1,000 face value bonds with an 8 percent coupon paid semi-annually and a five-year maturity at $900 per bond. If Dot.Coms marginal tax rate is 38 percent, its after-tax cost of debt is closest to:

选项:

A.

6.2 percent.

B.

6.4 percent.

C.

6.6 percent.

解释:

C is correct.

FV = $1,000; PMT = $40; N = 10; PV = -$900

Solve for i. The six-month yield, i, is 5.3149%

YTM = 5.3149% × 2 = 10.62985%

r d (1t) = 10.62985%(10.38) = 6.5905%

为什么折现率要乘以2呢?按照什么价格折现,折现率不是都确定好了的吗?从来没做到折现率要乘以2的题目,请问怎么理解呢?

1 个答案

王琛_品职助教 · 2020年11月11日

- 因为题干说了是半年付息一次,还有五年到期
- 所以你按计算器的时候,N = 10,相当于 10 期,得出的 I/Y 是一期的利率,即半年的利率,所以需要乘以 2
- "从来没做到折现率要乘以2的题目" -> 你这么说,何老师可要伤心了哦,请参考一级固定收益基础班讲义 P134-P135

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