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shelly0205 · 2020年10月30日

问一道题:NO.PZ201909300100000307

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问题如下:

Stephanie Tolmach is a consultant hired to create a performance attribution report on three funds held by a defined benefit pension plan (the Plan). Fund 1 is a domestic equity strategy, Fund 2 is a global equity strategy, and Fund 3 is a domestic fixed-income strategy.
Tolmach uses three approaches to attribution analysis: the return-based, holdings-based, and transaction-based approaches. The Plan’s investment committee asks Tolmach to (1) apply the attribution method that uses only each fund’s total portfolio returns over the last 12 months to identify return-generating components of the investment process and (2) include the impact of specific active investment decisions and the attribution effects of allocation and security selection in the report.
Tolmach first evaluates the performance of Fund 1 by constructing a Carhart factor model; the results are presented in Exhibit 1.

Tolmach turns her attention to Fund 2, constructing a region-based micro attribution analysis to evaluate the active decisions of the portfolio manager. The results are presented in Exhibit 2.

Next, Tolmach evaluates Fund 3 and the appropriateness of its benchmark. The benchmark is a cap-weighted bond index with daily reported performance; the index is rebalanced frequently, making it difficult to replicate. The benchmark has a meaningful investment in foreign bonds, whereas Fund 3 invests only in domestic bonds.
In the final section of the report, Tolmach reviews the entire Plan’s characteristics, asset allocation, and benchmark. Tolmach observes that the Plan’s benefits are no longer indexed to inflation and that the workforce is, on average, younger than it was when the current fund allocations were approved. Tolmach recommends a change in the Plan’s asset allocation policy.


7 Based on Exhibit 2, the underperformance at the overall fund level is predominantly the result of poor security selection decisions in:

选项:

A.

South America.

B.

greater Europe.

C.

developed Asia and Australasia.

解释:

A is correct.

The total –441 bps of underperformance from security selection and interaction at the overall fund level is predominantly the result of poor South American security selection decisions (–311 bps = 3.11%).

Allocation = (wi – Wi)(Bi – B)
North America = (10.84% – 7.67%)(16.47% – 22.67%) = –0.20%
Greater Europe = (38.92% – 42.35%)(25.43% – 22.67%) = –0.09%
Developed Asia and Australasia = (29.86% – 31.16%)(12.85% – 22.67%) = 0.13%
South America = (20.38% – 18.82%)(35.26% – 22.67%) = 0.20%

Selection + Interaction = Wi(Ri – Bi) + (wi – Wi)(Ri – Bi)

North America = 7.67%(16.50% – 16.47%) + (10.84% – 7.67%)(16.50% – 16.47%) = 0.00%

Greater Europe = 42.35%(23.16% – 25.43%) + (38.92% – 42.35%)(23.16% – 25.43%) = –0.88%
Developed Asia and Australasia = 31.16%(11.33% – 12.85%) + (29.86% – 31.16%)(11.33% – 12.85%) = –0.45%
South America = 18.82%(20.00% – 35.26%) + (20.38% – 18.82%)(20.00% – 35.26%) = –3.11%

不好意思请问根据Brinson公式,不是allocation是weight的差别,selection是return的差别吗?这道题问selection是不是要用return的差别乘以benchmark 的weight来算?

2 个答案

506623496 · 2023年11月28日

这道题题目说是微观归因,是默认和宏观归因一样算算吗?

吴昊_品职助教 · 2020年10月30日

同学你好:

原版书上宏观归因把selection和interaction混在一起,宏观归因中,选股和交叉项是由manager决定的,而allocation是sponsor决定的。这道题不是Brinson模型,是宏观归因。宏观归因参考基础班讲义P131页。

这个点其实是原版书的一个bug,所以老师上课重点强调过。如果题目中强调了用Brinson Model,则用 (wi – Wi) *B,如果啥都没说,那么 (wi – Wi)(Bi – B)的可能性大,优先用这个

hmggh · 2023年08月23日

可是老师表2上方有说明是用Micro的 “constructing a region-based micro attribution analysis to evaluate the active decisions of the portfolio manager. ” 为什么您说是Macro的呢?怎么识别呢?如若是Micro的是不是只求S的公式就可以,不用加上I?

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NO.PZ201909300100000307 问题如下 7 Baseon Exhibit 2, the unrperformanthe overall funlevel is preminantly the result of poor security selection cisions in: A.South Americ B.greater Europe. C.velopeAsia anAustralasi A is correct. The tot–441 bps of unrperformanfrom security selection aninteraction the overall funlevel is preminantly the result of poor South Americsecurity selection cisions (–311 bps = 3.11%).Allocation = (wi – Wi)(– B)North Ameri= (10.84% – 7.67%)(16.47% – 22.67%) = –0.20%Greater Europe = (38.92% – 42.35%)(25.43% – 22.67%) = –0.09%velopeAsia anAustralasia = (29.86% – 31.16%)(12.85% – 22.67%) = 0.13%South Ameri= (20.38% – 18.82%)(35.26% – 22.67%) = 0.20%Selection + Interaction = Wi(Ri – Bi) + (wi – Wi)(Ri – Bi) North Ameri= 7.67%(16.50% – 16.47%) + (10.84% – 7.67%)(16.50% – 16.47%) = 0.00%Greater Europe = 42.35%(23.16% – 25.43%) + (38.92% – 42.35%)(23.16% – 25.43%) = –0.88%velopeAsia anAustralasia = 31.16%(11.33% – 12.85%) + (29.86% – 31.16%)(11.33% – 12.85%) = –0.45%South Ameri= 18.82%(20.00% – 35.26%) + (20.38% – 18.82%)(20.00% – 35.26%) = –3.11% 老师好,这道题不是让求security selection吗?但是我看答案算的是interaction的影响啊?是我什么地方理解错了吗?

2024-05-28 20:40 1 · 回答

NO.PZ201909300100000307问题如下7 Baseon Exhibit 2, the unrperformanthe overall funlevel is preminantly the result of poor security selection cisions in:A.South America.B.greater Europe.C.velopeAsia anAustralasia.A is correct. The tot–441 bps of unrperformanfrom security selection aninteraction the overall funlevel is preminantly the result of poor South Americsecurity selection cisions (–311 bps = 3.11%).Allocation = (wi – Wi)(– B)North Ameri= (10.84% – 7.67%)(16.47% – 22.67%) = –0.20%Greater Europe = (38.92% – 42.35%)(25.43% – 22.67%) = –0.09%velopeAsia anAustralasia = (29.86% – 31.16%)(12.85% – 22.67%) = 0.13%South Ameri= (20.38% – 18.82%)(35.26% – 22.67%) = 0.20%Selection + Interaction = Wi(Ri – Bi) + (wi – Wi)(Ri – Bi) North Ameri= 7.67%(16.50% – 16.47%) + (10.84% – 7.67%)(16.50% – 16.47%) = 0.00%Greater Europe = 42.35%(23.16% – 25.43%) + (38.92% – 42.35%)(23.16% – 25.43%) = –0.88%velopeAsia anAustralasia = 31.16%(11.33% – 12.85%) + (29.86% – 31.16%)(11.33% – 12.85%) = –0.45%South Ameri= 18.82%(20.00% – 35.26%) + (20.38% – 18.82%)(20.00% – 35.26%) = –3.11%可是老师表2上方有说明是用Micro的 “constructing a region-basemicro attribution analysis to evaluate the active cisions of the portfolio manager. ” 为什么您说是Macro的呢?怎么识别呢?如若是Micro的是不是只求S的公式就可以,不用加上I?

2024-01-01 10:58 1 · 回答