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和棋 · 2020年10月23日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016082405000033

问题如下:

Suppose a portfolio has a notional value of $1,000,000 with 20 credit positions. Each of the credits has a default probability of 2% and a recovery rate of zero. Each credit position in the portfolio is an obligation from the same obligor, and therefore, the credit portfolio has a default correlation equal to 1. What is the credit value at risk at the 99% confidence level for this credit portfolio?

选项:

A.

$0.

B.

$1,000.

C.

$20,000.

D.

$980,000. 

解释:

D With the default correlation equal to l, the portfolio will act as if there is only one credit. Viewing the portfolio as a binomial distributed random variable, there are only two possible outcomes for a portfolio acting as one credit. The portfolio has a 2% probability of total loss and a 98% probability of zero loss. Therefore, with a recovery rate of zero, the extreme loss given default is $1,000,000. The expected loss is equal to the portfolio value times π and is $20,000 in this example (0.02 x $1,000,000). The credit VaR is defined as the quantile of the credit loss less the expected loss of the portfolio. At the 99% confidence level, the credit VaR is equal to $980,000 ($1,000,000 minus the expected loss of $20,000).

他这里说的20position是指有20笔相同的贷款吗?如果是这样的话为什么不能用二项分布算标准差为np(1-p)=(20*98%*2%)^0.5=0.626再找2.33处的分位点算呢?

1 个答案

袁园_品职助教 · 2020年10月24日

同学你好!

是有20笔贷款,总共是1m,这20笔都是贷给同一个counterparty的,所以default correlation =1

二项分布是要求独立的,即default correlation =0