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Carrera · 2020年10月19日

问一道题:NO.PZ2019103001000047

问题如下:

Six months later, Hirji reviews Canadian government bonds for a Malaysian institutional client. Prégent and Hirji expect changes in the curvature of the yield curve but are not sure whether curvature will increase or decrease. Hirji first analyzes positions that would profit from an increase in the curvature of the yield curve. The positions must be duration neutral, and the maximum position that the Malaysian client can take in long-term bonds is C$150 million. Hirji notes that interest rates have increased by 100 basis points over the past six months. Selected data for on-the-run Canadian government bonds are shown in Exhibit 2.

Based on Exhibit 2, the amount that Hirji should allocate to the 2-year bond position is closest to:

选项:

A.

C$331 million

B.

C$615 million

C.

C$1,492 million.

解释:

C is correct.

In order to take duration-neutral positions that will profit from an increase in the curvature of the yield curve, Hirji should structure a condor. This condor structure has the following positions: long the 2-year bonds, short the 5-year bonds, short the 10-year bonds, and long the long-term bonds. Hirji’s allocation to the 2-year bond position is calculated as follows:

The C$150 million long-term bonds have a money duration of C$150 × 1,960 = C$294,000

Allocation to 2-year bond = Money duration of long-term bonds/PVBP of 2-year bond

2-year bond position = C$294,000/197 = 1,492.39 or C$1,492 million

"The C$150 million long-term bonds have a money duration of C$150 × 1,960 = C$294,000",按照讲义说法,Money duration=MV*modified duration,为什么答案这里Money duration=MV*PVBP?

1 个答案

WallE_品职答疑助手 · 2020年10月21日

同学您好,

这里是有点confuse,这个图表的信息是PVBP per million,所以在乘以million就会得到money duration。

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