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Terry429 · 2020年08月30日

问一道题:NO.PZ201710020100000103

* 问题详情,请 查看题干

问题如下:

3. Using the quotes from Dealer A and B, the triangular arbitrage profit on a transaction of MXN 27,000,000 would be closest to:

选项:

A.

GBP 0.

B.

GBP 5,400.

C.

GBP 10,800.

解释:

A is correct.

Using quotes from Dealer A, she can find

MXNGBP=MXNUSD×USDGBP\frac{MXN}{GBP}=\frac{MXN}{USD}\times\frac{USD}{GBP}

The bid from Dealer A for MXN/GBP is effectively

(MXNGBP)bid=(MXNUSD)bid×(USDGBP)bid{(\frac{MXN}{GBP})}_{bid}={(\frac{MXN}{USD})}_{bid}\times{(\frac{USD}{GBP})}_{bid}

The offer from Dealer A is

(MXNGBP)offer=(MXNUSD)offer×(USDGBP)offer{(\frac{MXN}{GBP})}_{offer}={(\frac{MXN}{USD})}_{offer}\times{(\frac{USD}{GBP})}_{offer}

To compare with Dealer B’s quote, she must take the inverse of MXN/GBP, so that she has an offer to sell MXN at a rate of 1/27.0271 = GBP 0.0370 and a bid to purchase MXN at a rate of 1/27.3225 = GBP 0.0366. Dealer A is effectively quoting. Although she can effectively buy pesos more cheaply from Dealer A (GBP 0.0370 from Dealer A, versus GBP 0.0372 from Dealer B), she cannot resell them to Dealer B for a higher price than GBP 0.0366. There is no profit from triangular arbitrage.

考点:Triangular arbitrage

能不能从三角套汇中获利的核心在于能不能实现低买高卖。

首先我们计算出Dealer A处MXN/GBP的报价

(MXNGBP)bid=(MXNUSD)bid×(USDGBP)bid{(\frac{MXN}{GBP})}_{bid}={(\frac{MXN}{USD})}_{bid}\times{(\frac{USD}{GBP})}_{bid}

(MXNGBP)offer=(MXNUSD)offer×(USDGBP)offer{(\frac{MXN}{GBP})}_{offer}={(\frac{MXN}{USD})}_{offer}\times{(\frac{USD}{GBP})}_{offer}

把上述形式转换一下可得 GBP/MXN的形式,

ASK: 1/27.0271 = 0.0370GBP/MXN

BID: 1/27.3225 = 0.0366GBP/MXN

注意到,MXN/GBP换成GBP/MXN后,因为标价货币和基础货币的地位对调了,所以取倒数后BID和ASK报价也要变化。 现在我们可以拿Dealer A的报价与Dealer B的报价作比较了。

Dealer B关于GBP/MXN的报价是0.0366/0.0372。可以看到,Dealer A对于MXN报价便宜一些,那么投资者应该首先从Dealer A处以0.0370GBP/MXN的价格买进MXN,然后去Dealer B处卖掉MXN,但是在Dealer B卖掉MXN就要用Dealer B的买价,0.0366。可以直观看到投资者以0.0370价格买入,却以0.0366价格卖出,是没有利润可得的。所以投资者不会去做这笔三角套汇,那么三角套汇的利润自然为0。

想问下这题有revised USD/GBP,为什么不用新的? 是不有歧义啊

1 个答案

源_品职助教 · 2020年08月31日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


这是一道原版书的题目,出的有些不太好。的确会让人引起歧义。

之前何老师也说道过,之所以不用REVISED是因为REVISED本意是用在后面一个小题的。

这里按照答案给的步骤明白怎么解就好。

 


-------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!


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NO.PZ201710020100000103 G5,400. G10,800. A is correct. Using quotes from aler she cfinMXNGBP=MXNUSUSBP\frac{MXN}{GBP}=\frac{MXN}{US\times\frac{US{GBP}GBPMXN​=USXN​×GBPUS The bifrom aler A for MXN/Gis effectively (MXNGBP)bi(MXNUSbi(USBP)bi(\frac{MXN}{GBP})}_{bi={(\frac{MXN}{US)}_{bi\times{(\frac{US{GBP})}_{bi(GBPMXN​)bi=(USXN​)bi×(GBPUS)bi The offer from aler A is (MXNGBP)offer=(MXNUSoffer×(USBP)offer{(\frac{MXN}{GBP})}_{offer}={(\frac{MXN}{US)}_{offer}\times{(\frac{US{GBP})}_{offer}(GBPMXN​)offer​=(USXN​)offer​×(GBPUS)offer​ To compare with aler B’s quote, she must take the inverse of MXN/GBP, so thshe hoffer to sell MXN a rate of 1/24.7742 = G0.0404 ana bito purchase MXN a rate of 1/24.8069 = G0.0403. aler A is effectively quoting. Although she ceffectively buy pesos more cheaply from aler A (G0.0404 from aler versus G0.0406 from aler B), she cannot resell them to aler B for a higher prithG0.0403. There is no profit from triangularbitrage. 考点Triangularbitrage 能不能从三角套汇中获利的核心在于能不能实现低买高卖。 首先我们计算出aler A处MXN/GBP的报价 (MXNGBP)bi(MXNUSbi(USBP)bi(\frac{MXN}{GBP})}_{bi={(\frac{MXN}{US)}_{bi\times{(\frac{US{GBP})}_{bi(GBPMXN​)bi=(USXN​)bi×(GBPUS)bi (MXNGBP)offer=(MXNUSoffer×(USBP)offer{(\frac{MXN}{GBP})}_{offer}={(\frac{MXN}{US)}_{offer}\times{(\frac{US{GBP})}_{offer}(GBPMXN​)offer​=(USXN​)offer​×(GBPUS)offer​ 把上述形式转换一下可得 GBP/MXN的形式, ASK: 1/24.7742 = 0.0404GBP/MXN BI 1/24.8069 = 0.0403GBP/MXN 注意到,MXN/GBP换成GBP/MXN后,因为标价货币和基础货币的地位对调了,所以取倒数后BIASK报价也要变化。 现在我们可以拿aler A的报价与aler B的报价作比较了。 aler B关于GBP/MXN的报价是0.0403/0.0406。可以看到,aler A对于MXN报价便宜一些,那么投资者应该首先从aler A处以0.0404GBP/MXN的价格买进MXN,然后去aler B处卖掉MXN,但是在aler B卖掉MXN就要用aler B的买价,0.0403。可以直观看到投资者以0.0404价格买入,却以0.0403价格卖出,是没有利润可得的。所以投资者不会去做这笔三角套汇,那么三角套汇的利润自然为0。 老师我光读这道题我没懂这个三角套利 是从哪个币种转到哪个 第一段说buy us然后又说收到一笔mxn的钱。。所以像这种情况应该怎么判多从哪转到哪呀

2021-09-10 21:23 1 · 回答

G5,400. G10,800. A is correct. Using quotes from aler she cfinMXNGBP=MXNUSUSBP\frac{MXN}{GBP}=\frac{MXN}{US\times\frac{US{GBP}GBPMXN​=USXN​×GBPUS The bifrom aler A for MXN/Gis effectively (MXNGBP)bi(MXNUSbi(USBP)bi(\frac{MXN}{GBP})}_{bi={(\frac{MXN}{US)}_{bi\times{(\frac{US{GBP})}_{bi(GBPMXN​)bi=(USXN​)bi×(GBPUS)bi The offer from aler A is (MXNGBP)offer=(MXNUSoffer×(USBP)offer{(\frac{MXN}{GBP})}_{offer}={(\frac{MXN}{US)}_{offer}\times{(\frac{US{GBP})}_{offer}(GBPMXN​)offer​=(USXN​)offer​×(GBPUS)offer​ To compare with aler B’s quote, she must take the inverse of MXN/GBP, so thshe hoffer to sell MXN a rate of 1/27.0271 = G0.0370 ana bito purchase MXN a rate of 1/27.3225 = G0.0366. aler A is effectively quoting. Although she ceffectively buy pesos more cheaply from aler A (G0.0370 from aler versus G0.0372 from aler B), she cannot resell them to aler B for a higher prithG0.0366. There is no profit from triangularbitrage. 考点Triangularbitrage 能不能从三角套汇中获利的核心在于能不能实现低买高卖。 首先我们计算出aler A处MXN/GBP的报价 (MXNGBP)bi(MXNUSbi(USBP)bi(\frac{MXN}{GBP})}_{bi={(\frac{MXN}{US)}_{bi\times{(\frac{US{GBP})}_{bi(GBPMXN​)bi=(USXN​)bi×(GBPUS)bi (MXNGBP)offer=(MXNUSoffer×(USBP)offer{(\frac{MXN}{GBP})}_{offer}={(\frac{MXN}{US)}_{offer}\times{(\frac{US{GBP})}_{offer}(GBPMXN​)offer​=(USXN​)offer​×(GBPUS)offer​ 把上述形式转换一下可得 GBP/MXN的形式, ASK: 1/27.0271 = 0.0370GBP/MXN BI 1/27.3225 = 0.0366GBP/MXN 注意到,MXN/GBP换成GBP/MXN后,因为标价货币和基础货币的地位对调了,所以取倒数后BIASK报价也要变化。 现在我们可以拿aler A的报价与aler B的报价作比较了。 aler B关于GBP/MXN的报价是0.0366/0.0372。可以看到,aler A对于MXN报价便宜一些,那么投资者应该首先从aler A处以0.0370GBP/MXN的价格买进MXN,然后去aler B处卖掉MXN,但是在aler B卖掉MXN就要用aler B的买价,0.0366。可以直观看到投资者以0.0370价格买入,却以0.0366价格卖出,是没有利润可得的。所以投资者不会去做这笔三角套汇,那么三角套汇的利润自然为0。本case中有的题要用biask 解题,有的要用mioint 解题。什么情况下用biask 解题,什么时候用mioint 解题呢?

2020-04-20 13:39 1 · 回答

    老师好,这道题目的方法我掌握了,也做对了,但是看答案有个小问题为什么不用aler A的reviseUSGbioffer quote of 1.5760/1.5768, 而是用原始的 1.5762/1.5766?有什么深层含义吗?下次出这样的题目,应该用哪个算?

2018-12-08 15:17 2 · 回答

为什么答案里计算USGBP用的是1.5762/1.5766 而不是text里面A call ba给的报价1.5760/1.5768?谢谢    

2018-04-20 11:37 1 · 回答