问题如下:
Raymond, a US analyst, is managing a fund with EUR-denominated assets. The USD/EUR spot rate is 1.1338, one-year forward exchange rate is 1.1369, while Raymond forecasts the expected spot rate is 1.1315. Assume the fund performance is measured in USD, the roll yield is:
选项:
A.0.27%
B.-0.27%
C.-0.20%
解释:
A is correct.
考点:roll yield
解析:目前Raymond的资产是以欧元来计价的,将来要卖欧元换美元,因此持有的远期合约是卖欧元。当前有forward premium(forward exchange rate >spot rate),所以可以定性的判断出Roll yield为正。当然也可以计算出来,Roll yield=(1.1369-1.1338)/1.1338=0.27%。
我的疑问在于(F-S)/S的S为什么不用预测的到期时刻的spot exchange rate而是要用初始时刻的?
roll yield的实现就是要到期的时候对前一份合约平仓再开一份新的合约,那么平仓计算收益率就应该是用到期时刻的spot exchange rate呀,为什么这里还要用初始时刻的呢?
讲义上针对此类例题,条件都是stable yield curve,所以初始时刻的spot rate和到期时刻的spot rate 都是一样的,就不存在本题的疑问。
请问书上或讲义上有没有哪里讲到这个问题呢?