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LHY · 2020年08月11日

问一道题:NO.PZ2020042003000006

问题如下:

Which of the following statement is not correct?

选项:

A.

LVAR = VaR + Liquidity Cost (LC)

B.

If the bid-ask spread is constant, the liquidity cost (LC) is 0.5 × Asset value × Spread

C.

If bid–ask spreads vary substantially, the liquidity cost (LC) is 0.5 × Asset value ×(u + z×σ)

D.

If the market is likely to respond to the trade itself, an Exogenous approach is appropriate.

解释:

考点:对Transaction liquidity risk measurement的理解

答案: D选项表述错误,本题选D

解析:

正确的描述为:If the market is likely to respond to the trade itself, an endogenous approach is appropriate.

C答案

为什么不是U - z *σ 呢

LAVaR = VaR + LC

不考虑value

normal 分布 Var应该都是 U - z *σ 对吧,lognormal分布 就是 1- exp(u-z*σ)


同样的逻辑当LC里面的spread不是constant的,需要用分布时,不应该也是U - z *σ 的逻辑吗,为啥变成了加号?怎么理解啊


1 个答案
已采纳答案

小刘_品职助教 · 2020年08月12日

同学你好,

你可以想一下,bid-ask价差大肯定是流动性不好,流动性不好的时候成本肯定大呀,如果是用减法,不就是价差越大成本比较小了~

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