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Nancy 王悦 · 2020年07月03日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016031001000080 [ CFA I ]

问题如下:

A bond with 5 years remaining until maturity is currently trading for 101 per 100 of par value. The bond offers a 6% coupon rate with interest paid semiannually. The bond is first callable in 3 years, and is callable after that date on coupon dates according to the following schedule:

The bond’s yield-to-worst is closest to:

选项:

A.

2.88%.

B.

5.77%.

C.

6.25%.

解释:

B is correct.

The yield-to-worst is 5.77%. The bond’s yield-to-worst is the lowest of the sequence of yields-to-call and the yield-to-maturity. From above, we have the following yield measures for this bond:

Yield-to-first-call: 6.25%

Yield-to-second-call: 5.94%

Yield-to-maturity: 5.77%

Thus, the yield-to-worst is 5.77%.

老师您好,您帮我看看看我错在哪里了?

1 个答案

吴昊_品职助教 · 2020年07月04日

由于债券是半年付息一次,所以PMT应该取3,而不是6,这是你的问题所在。

对于 yield-to-maturity:

N=10;PV=-101;PMT=3;FV=100 → CPT:i/y =2.8835

但是要注意这是半年付息一次,所以年化后的 i/y是:5.767%

对于 yield-to-frist call:

N=6;PV=-101;PMT=3;FV=102 → CPT:i/y =3.1229

所以年化后的 i/y是:6.246%

 对于 yield-to-second call:

N=8;PV=-101;PMT=3;FV=101 → CPT:i/y =2.97

所以年化后的 i/y是:5.94%

对比之后,最差的是yield-to-maturity.

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