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Alex · 2017年11月15日

问一道题:NO.PZ2015121810000042 [ CFA II ]

问题如下图:
选项:
A.
B.
C.
解释:
老师,关于这道题,我有两个地方想问一下您。
1、  本来这道题我开始是做错的。我看到risk-averse本能的就想起来ppt110页的教程,就选择了cov<0。后来仔细一看,才发现是问的是未来消费爽度和现在股票回报(含溢价)的关系。这里的正相关,是不是就是等于课件110页讲的(P,M)之间的负相关呢。
2、  课件110页,讲到(P,M)相关性的问题。当经济不好的时候,将来收入低,将来消费的效用高,所以M就大。同时,大家为了避险都买入短期国债,导致国债收益低,价格P高。所以M和P就是正相关。那么,在正常时期呢,经济不错,未来收入高,未来收入效用就低,那么M就小,但是M和P是负相关,就是说短期债券的价格还是高的,这个怎么理解呢?这段老师视频没有提到。所以麻烦您给讲一下。
以上,谢谢老师。
Alex · 2017年11月15日

老师我再追问一个:关于110页这个公式,您看我这么理解是否可以。正常时,cov小于零,E(p)/1+l再加上负数=公式左边的大P,这就说明资产的回报要大于rf。反之badtime,cov大于零,E(p)/1+l再加上正数=公式左边的大P,这就说明资产回报小于rf。这里的l就是资产回报对吧。

1 个答案
已采纳答案

源_品职助教 · 2017年11月16日

你说得标的资产是国债,但是这道题研究的标的资产是股票。

如果经济向好,股票收益高,未来收入也在增加,正相关。

如果经济不好,股票收益降低,未来收入也在降低,证先关。

这基本上凭借对生活的观察就能得到结论。不需要看答案写的那么复杂。

Alex · 2017年11月16日

老师,那如果是国债的话呢,您看看我的三个问题,帮我解释一下吧,谢谢

Alex · 2017年11月16日

我后面提问的1和2以及追加的一个提问,是我学这章觉得最难的地方,感觉理解起来很吃力,麻烦老师了。

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