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徐威廉 · 2020年06月03日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018103102000119 [ CFA II ]

问题如下:

Matt is preparing to calculate the intrinsic value of Company M’s equity by using the FCFF model with the constant growth rate of 5% indefinitely. The most recent FCFF is $2,000 million and the company is in the 30% tax bracket. The relevant information is shown in the following table. What `s the value of Company M?

选项:

A.

$ 96,153.85million

B.

$ 100,836.20million

C.

$100,961.54 million

解释:

C is correct.

考点:Valuation Models

解析:先计算WACC = wd × rd × (1–T) + (wp × rp) + (we × re)

= (15,000/40,000)(0.06)(1– 0.3) + (5,000/40,000)(0.04) + (20,000/40,000)(0.1)

= 7.08%

V=FCFF0×(1+g)WACCg=2,000×1.057.08%5%=$100,961.54millionV=\frac{FCFF_0\times\left(1+g\right)}{WACC-g}=\frac{2,000\times1.05}{7.08\%-5\%}=\$100,961.54million

我计算出来的wacc=7.075%最终V=101204.8怎么和答案相差这么多?
1 个答案
已采纳答案

Debrah_品职答疑助手 · 2020年06月04日

同学你好

1、原则上肯定是找最接近的。由于二级计算量很大,在考试中也会遇到计算结果有误差的情况,但你放放心只要你计算正确,就不会有选不出答案的情况。

2、折现率(分母)对于估值影响很大,折现率尽量保留两位小数,你再试试计算。

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NO.PZ2018103102000119 问题如下 Matt is preparing to calculate the intrinsic value of Company M’s equity using the FCFF mol with the constant growth rate of 5% infinitely. The most recent FCFF is $2,000 million anthe company is in the 30% tbracket. The relevant information is shown in the following table. Wh`s the value of Company M? A.$ 96,153.85million B.$ 107,836.20million C.$$101,204.82 million C is correct.考点Valuation Mols解析先计算WA= w× r× (1–T) + (wp × rp) + (we × re) = (15,000/40,000)(0.06)(1– 0.3) + (5,000/40,000)(0.04) + (20,000/40,000)(0.1)= 7.075%V=FCFF0×(1+g)WACC−g=2,000×1.057.075%−5%=$101,204.82millionV=\frac{FCFF_0\times\left(1+g\right)}{WACC-g}=\frac{2,000\times1.05}{7.075\%-5\%}=\$101,204.82million V=WACC−gFCFF0​×(1+g)​=7.075%−5%2,000×1.05​=$101,204.82million 你好,计算求得V0(EV)=101,204.82后,为什么不是Value=EV-mkt value of bt=101,204.82-15,000

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NO.PZ2018103102000119 如图

2021-12-10 10:30 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2018103102000119

2021-12-10 10:27 2 · 回答

NO.PZ2018103102000119 $ 100,836.20million $100,961.54 million C is correct. 考点Valuation Mols 解析先计算WA= w× r× (1–T) + (wp × rp) + (we × re) = (15,000/40,000)(0.06)(1– 0.3) + (5,000/40,000)(0.04) + (20,000/40,000)(0.1) = 7.08% V=FCFF0×(1+g)WACC−g=2,000×1.057.08%−5%=$100,961.54millionV=\frac{FCFF_0\times\left(1+g\right)}{WACC-g}=\frac{2,000\times1.05}{7.08\%-5\%}=\$100,961.54million V=WACC−gFCFF0​×(1+g)​=7.08%−5%2,000×1.05​=$100,961.54million算WACC时,优先股不需要1—t吗

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