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Nancy 王悦 · 2020年05月25日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018070201000032 [ CFA I ]

问题如下:

The 5% one-day Value at Risk of $2 million can be interpreted by:

选项:

A.

It expects to lose a minimum $2 million in one day with 5% probability.

B.

It expects to lose no more than $2 million in one day with 5% probability.

C.

It expects to lose at least $2 million in one dya with 95% probability.

解释:

A is correct.

The VaR is a minimum extreme loss metric in a time period given the probability.

老师,这对为什么不选择b 
1 个答案

丹丹_品职答疑助手 · 2020年05月26日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


The 5% one-day Value at Risk of $2 million can be interpreted by:

It expects to lose a minimum $2 million in one day with 5% probability.

It expects to lose no more than $2 million in one day with 95% probability.

B选项比例说错了,从右向左看,应该是95%的比例,请知悉


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