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Josy Pan · 2020年05月23日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018111501000019

问题如下:

One of the non-EUR currency exposures in the Portfolio is GBP. Aron frequently adjusts his GBP positions based on his short-term tactical outlook. Aron forecasts that the GBP will appreciate by 5% against the USD over the next six months. The current USD/GBP rate is 1.60 (1 GBP = 1.60 USD). Aron is considering the six-month European option positions with the primary objective of increasing his GBP exposure in line with his forecast, and a secondary objective of minimizing the initial cash outlay. Which of the trades below will most likely satisfy Aron’s objectives at expiration?

选项:

A.

Trade 1: Buy call with 1.68 strike, sell call with 1.72 strike.

B.

Trade 2: Buy call with 1.60 strike, sell call with 1.68 strike.

C.

Trade 3: Buy call with 1.60 strike, sell call with 1.72 strike.

解释:

B is correct.

考点:Strategies to Modify Risk and Lower Hedging Costs

解析:预测GBP会增值,所以Buy call with 1.60 strike,未来的增值会使Aron1.6的现价基础上获益。由于增值幅度为5% 1.6*1+5%=1.68,所以sell call with 1.68 strike可以降低成本。

这里为何不是long OTM call on GBP来降低成本呢?S=1.60 --> OTM Call X>1.60? 这样分析错在哪里呢?谢谢。

2 个答案
已采纳答案

xiaowan_品职助教 · 2020年05月25日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


同学你好,

这道题投资者对市场的看法是价格会从1.6涨到1.68,那么最理想的状态就是赚取这中间的差价,

而1.68就是我们认为的价格上限,如果long1.68为执行价格的call,是没办法获得收益的。

而B选项的策略组合可以获得1.6到1.68之间升值的部分


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AM1989 · 2023年07月19日

可以理解为,long能赚钱的(即使贵了点),sell价格更高的,这样吗?

pzqa31 · 2023年07月20日

嗨,爱思考的PZer你好:


是的 ,但是short的执行价格也不能太高,还是要基于对未来股价预期,比如这道题预计最多股价涨到1.68,选择short执行价格1.68的call, 最差payoff也就是0,但是比如你去short一个执行价格高于1.68的call,一但执行了,payoff是负的。

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