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leozhenlin · 2020年05月21日

问一道题：NO.PZ2018062007000071 [ CFA I ]

  1. CFA I
  2. Derivative

问题如下：

For a risk-averse investor, the price of a risky asset, assuming no additional costs and benefits of holding the asset, is:

选项：

A.

unrelated to the risk-free rate.

B.

directly related to its level of risk.

C.

inversely related to its level of risk.

解释：

C is correct. An asset’s current price, S0, is determined by discounting the expected future price of the asset by r (the risk free rate) plus λ (the risk premium) over the period from 0 to T, as illustrated in the following equation:S0=E(ST)(1+r  +  λ)TS_0=\frac{E\left(S_T\right)}{\left(1+r\;+\;\lambda\right)^T}
Thus, an asset’s current price inversely relates to its level of risk via the related risk premium, λ.

A is incorrect because an asset’s current price in spot markets is calculated using the risk- free rate plus a risk premium. B is incorrect because an asset’s current price in spot markets is inversely related, not directly related, to its level of risk.

我想问下，应该是无风险利率+风险溢价。那为什么选c，c的意思我理解的意思是跟风险等级逆相关，b是与分险等级直接相关。可能我没读懂题意，希望老师给予教导

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1 个答案

xiaowan_品职助教 · 2020年05月22日

嗨，努力学习的PZer你好：


同学你好，

解析中有列出资产价格的公式，风险水平是在分母上的，所以是反向影响。


-------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦，但努力过的感觉真的很好，加油！


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