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米妮涵 · 2017年11月11日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000017 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:
选项:
A.
B.
C.
解释:理解不了算式的意义
2 个答案

波妞jybsn1 · 2017年11月28日

可以看作是

N=4*10

I/Y=6%/4

PV=0

FV=25000

求每个季度往里放多少钱10年后才有25000,也就是求PMT,计算器按出来就是460.68

品职辅导员_小明 · 2017年11月11日

同学你好,这是年金的计算,你理解不了算式的意义是因为你对这个EAR的考点掌握不牢固,题干中给的条件stated annual interest rate 6%是银行对外公布的利率,并不是你实际投资获得的回报率,所以第一步要先计算EAR,第二步是用EAR作为利率代入复利的公式,乘以PMT,就是FV,最后答案是问你每个季度要投多少钱,FV是25,000

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NO.PZ2017092702000017问题如下Given a stateannuinterest rate of 6% compounquarterly, the level amount that, positequarterly, will grow to £25,000 the enof 10 years is closest to:A.£461.B.£474.C.£836. A is correct. To solve for annuity (payment, when the future value (FV), interest rate, annumber of perio is known, use the following equation:lFV=A[(1+rsm)mN−1rm]25,000=A[(1+0.064)4×10−10.064]{l}FV=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{r_s}m)}^{mN}-1}{\frrm}\rbrack}\\25,000=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{0.06}4)}^{4\times10}-1}{\frac{0.06}4}\rbrack}lFV=A[mr​(1+mrs​​)mN−1​]25,000=A[40.06​(1+40.06​)4×10−1​]A=460.68计算器按法6%/4=1.5%。所以I/Y=1.5,N=10*4=40,FV=25000,PV=0,CPT PMT=-460.6775. 为什么I/Y用的不是EAR/4?

2023-07-20 19:25 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2017092702000017问题如下 Given a stateannuinterest rate of 6% compounquarterly, the level amount that, positequarterly, will grow to £25,000 the enof 10 years is closest to:A.£461.B.£474.C.£836. A is correct. To solve for annuity (payment, when the future value (FV), interest rate, annumber of perio is known, use the following equation:lFV=A[(1+rsm)mN−1rm]25,000=A[(1+0.064)4×10−10.064]{l}FV=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{r_s}m)}^{mN}-1}{\frrm}\rbrack}\\25,000=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{0.06}4)}^{4\times10}-1}{\frac{0.06}4}\rbrack}lFV=A[mr​(1+mrs​​)mN−1​]25,000=A[40.06​(1+40.06​)4×10−1​]A=460.68计算器按法6%/4=1.5%。所以I/Y=1.5,N=10*4=40,FV=25000,PV=0,CPT PMT=-460.6775. 题目从哪里可以看出要求的是PMT

2023-06-08 19:32 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2017092702000017 问题如下 Given a stateannuinterest rate of 6% compounquarterly, the level amount that, positequarterly, will grow to £25,000 the enof 10 years is closest to: A.£461. B.£474. C.£836. A is correct. To solve for annuity (payment, when the future value (FV), interest rate, annumber of perio is known, use the following equation:lFV=A[(1+rsm)mN−1rm]25,000=A[(1+0.064)4×10−10.064]{l}FV=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{r_s}m)}^{mN}-1}{\frrm}\rbrack}\\25,000=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{0.06}4)}^{4\times10}-1}{\frac{0.06}4}\rbrack}lFV=A[mr​(1+mrs​​)mN−1​]25,000=A[40.06​(1+40.06​)4×10−1​]A=460.68计算器按法6%/4=1.5%。所以I/Y=1.5,N=10*4=40,FV=25000,PV=0,CPT PMT=-460.6775. 首先我理解的题目意思是6%年化,1年4次复利,得到EAR,然后在这个EAR水平下也进行每年复利4次,10年后得到25000刀,问每年存入多少钱

2022-08-22 16:02 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2017092702000017 问题如下 Given a stateannuinterest rate of 6% compounquarterly, the level amount that, positequarterly, will grow to £25,000 the enof 10 years is closest to: A.£461. B.£474. C.£836. A is correct. To solve for annuity (payment, when the future value (FV), interest rate, annumber of perio is known, use the following equation:lFV=A[(1+rsm)mN−1rm]25,000=A[(1+0.064)4×10−10.064]{l}FV=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{r_s}m)}^{mN}-1}{\frrm}\rbrack}\\25,000=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{0.06}4)}^{4\times10}-1}{\frac{0.06}4}\rbrack}lFV=A[mr​(1+mrs​​)mN−1​]25,000=A[40.06​(1+40.06​)4×10−1​]A=460.68计算器按法6%/4=1.5%。所以I/Y=1.5,N=10*4=40,FV=25000,PV=0,CPT PMT=-460.6775. 老师,为什么这道题不求EAR呢?为什么我觉得用EAR除以4,才是最终计算器要带入的1/Y呢

2022-05-08 17:48 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2017092702000017 从那句话可以推断出这道题目的PV是0呢?

2021-11-16 20:38 1 · 回答