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我们 · 2020年04月28日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016082405000105

问题如下:

Suppose a portfolio has a value of $1,000,000 with 50 independent credit positions. Each position has the same amount of $20,000. Each of the credits has a default probability of 2% and a recovery rate of 0%. The credit portfolio has a default correlation equal to 0. The number of defaults is binomially distributed and the 95th percentile of the number of defaults is 3. What is the credit value at risk at the 95% confidence level for this credit portfolio?

选项:

A.

$20,000.

B.

$40,000.

C.

$60,000.

D.

$980,000.

解释:

B The loss given default is $60,000 [3 x ($1,000,000 I 50)]. The expected loss is equal to the portfolio value times and is $20,000 (0.02 x $1,000,000). The credit VaR is defined as the quantile of the credit loss less the expected loss of the portfolio. At the 95% confidence level, the credit VaR is equal to $40,000 ($60,000 minus the expected loss of $20,000).

两个疑问:

1、LGD不是等于1-RR吗?为什么这里的计算方式是3*20000?

2、EL的计算公式不是EAD*PD*LGD吗?为什么这里没有乘LGD呢?

2 个答案

小刘_品职助教 · 2020年04月30日

同学你好,是的。

小刘_品职助教 · 2020年04月28日

同学你好,

1、这道题是因为这个组合由50个互相独立的资产构成,每个资产的价值为1000000/50=20000,从题目中已知RR=0 ,所以每个资产违约之后损失就是20000,又已知95%分位数的数量是3个, 所以WCL=3*20000=60000

2、LGD=1,所以乘LGD和不乘结果相同