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Pina · 2020年03月30日

问一道题:NO.PZ2019010402000012

问题如下:

A manger entered into a receive-fixed and pay-equity swap three months ago. The annualized fixed rate is 3% and equity index was at 100 when swap was entered. The maturity of swap is one year with quarterly reset, and notional amount is $100 million. The current spot rates are as follows:

The value of this equity swap would be zero if the equity index level is:

选项:

A.

100.753630

B.

100

C.

99.753630

解释:

A is correct.

考点:equity swap求value

解析:

已知value=0,反求此时equity index的价格。

首先画图:

一年期的swap,3个月之前进入的,所以时间轴如下,还剩3笔现金流。

对于fixed leg来说,我们只用将三笔现金流折现即可。

Valuefixedleg=3%×(90360)×100000000×(0.997506+0.992556+0.985222)+100,000,000×0.985222=100,753,663Value_{fixedleg=}3\%\times(\frac{90}{360})\times100000000\times(0.997506+0.992556+0.985222) +100,000,000\times0.985222\\=100,753,663

将现在index的价格设为X,那么equity leg的价值=X/100*100,000,000

头寸是付equity return收固定,所以value of swap=- X/100*100,000,000+100,753,630=0

可计算出X=100.753630

老师好,


对于fixed leg来说,我们只用将三笔现金流折现即可。这里为什么第3个越 上的收到的固定利息$0.75MM 不用加入 fixed leg上 的VALUE ? 谢谢。

2 个答案

xiaowan_品职助教 · 2020年03月31日

同学你好,是这样的,我们站在某一个时点对未来现金流折现求和都是不计算当期收益的。

xiaowan_品职助教 · 2020年03月30日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


同学你好,你的疑问是不是最后的NP有没有折现呢,你看等式中最后一部分100,000,000×0.985222就是名义本金的折现

Valuefixedleg=3%×(90/360)×100000000×(0.997506+0.992556+0.985222)+100,000,000×0.985222=100,753,663 ,

说三笔现金流是把最后一次付息和本金合成一笔现金流了


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