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牛cc · 2020年03月17日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016012101000194 [ CFA I ]

请问为什么要pv+3736,我理解3736不是每期偿还的本金吗,还了这部分剩下的才是还没还负债,不应该是pv-这个本金吗?我错在哪里了,谢谢

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

1 个答案

纠纠_品职答疑助手 · 2020年03月17日

同学您好:

现在是折价发行,每一期的利息费用是大于每期付的Coupon的。

Interest expense  = 58736

实际付的钱  =55000,实际付的利息小于利息费用,所以相当于欠的更多了。

所以需要负债等于又多了一笔,需要PV+3836

加油!

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NO.PZ2016012101000194 问题如下 On 1 January 2010, Elegant Fragrances Company issues £1,000,000 favalue, five-yebon with annuinterest payments of £55,000 to paiea31 cember. The market interest rate is 6.0 percent. Using the effective interest rate methoof amortisation, Elegant Fragrances is most likely to recor A.interest expense of £55,000 on its 2010 income statement. B.a liability of £982,674 on the 31 cember 2010 balansheet. C.a £58,736 cash outflow from operating activity on the 2010 statement of cash flows. B is correct.The bon will issuea scount because the market interest rate is higher ththe staterate. scounting the future payments to their present value incates ththe time of issue, the company will recor£978,938 both a liability ana cash inflow from financing activities. Interest expense in 2010 is £58,736 (£978,938 times 6.0 percent). ring the year, the company will pcash of £55,000 relateto the interest payment, but interest expense on the income statement will also refle£3,736 relateto amortization of the initiscount (£58,736 interest expense less the £55,000 interest payment). Thus, the value of the liability 31 cember 2010 will reflethe initivalue (£978,938) plus the amortizescount (£3,736), for a totof £982,674. The cash outflow of £55,000 mpresenteeither operating or financing activity unr IFRS.解析EF公司发行了1,000,000面值,5年期的债券,每年付息一次,票面利息为55,000。可计算出债券票面利率为55,000/1,000,000=5.5%。已知发行时市场利率(effective interest rate)为6%。债券会计处理用“effective interest rate metho。可以先求出债券发行时候的市场价格,也就是债券的入账价值N=5, I/Y=6%, PMT=55,000, FV=1,000,000 求出PV=978,938,2010年期初发行债券后公司增加一笔负债liability 978,938。按照effective interest rate metho会计处理方法,每年年底实际收到的coupon 55,000是现金流量表的数字,不等于损益表中的利息费用。损益表中的interestexpense = 978,938×6%=58,736 ,A、C说法错误。2010年年初发行债券,发行时债券入账价值为978,938,一年后债券价值增加了这一年的利息费用58,736,但是同时实际归还了利息55,000,因此年末债券账面价值=978,938+58,736-55,000=982,674(BASE法则),B正确。 债券票面利息(coupon payment)在不同会计准则下的现金流分类USGAAP下,债券票面利息(coupon payment)or 支付的利息(interest pai为CFOIFRS下,债券票面利息(coupon payment)or 支付的利息(interest pai可以归为CFO也可以归为CFF。所以为什么C不对啊

2023-05-10 19:30 1 · 回答

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2022-11-06 13:03 1 · 回答

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2022-04-01 01:12 1 · 回答

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2022-02-02 15:50 1 · 回答

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2021-12-30 22:56 1 · 回答