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snow666_6 · 2020年03月14日

问一道题：NO.PZ2018062007000071 [ CFA I ]

  1. CFA I
  2. Derivative

问题如下：

For a risk-averse investor, the price of a risky asset, assuming no additional costs and benefits of holding the asset, is:

选项：

A.

unrelated to the risk-free rate.

B.

directly related to its level of risk.

C.

inversely related to its level of risk.

解释：

C is correct. An asset’s current price, S0, is determined by discounting the expected future price of the asset by r (the risk free rate) plus λ (the risk premium) over the period from 0 to T, as illustrated in the following equation:S0=E(ST)(1+r  +  λ)TS_0=\frac{E\left(S_T\right)}{\left(1+r\;+\;\lambda\right)^T}
Thus, an asset’s current price inversely relates to its level of risk via the related risk premium, λ.

A is incorrect because an asset’s current price in spot markets is calculated using the risk- free rate plus a risk premium. B is incorrect because an asset’s current price in spot markets is inversely related, not directly related, to its level of risk.

能讲一下这个题目吗？没看懂。
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1 个答案

xiaowan_品职助教 · 2020年03月14日

嗨，从没放弃的小努力你好：


同学你好，这道题的意思是，对于风险厌恶的投资者，给风险资产定价时，选择折现率应该为无风险利率再加上风险溢价。

这部分在Pricing the Underlying这一节视频开头有详细讲解，同学可以再回顾一下哈。


-------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦，但努力过的感觉真的很好，加油！


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