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海伦岛主 · 2020年03月07日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018101501000064

问题如下:

Company M, a manufacturer of automobile, is in the 25% tax bracket. The company is currently 37.5% debt-financed and 62.5% equity-financed, with the market value of debt and EBIT of $1 million and $0.5 million, respectively. What`s the WACC of Company M according to the MM`s proposition with tax?

选项:

A.

11.25%

B.

14.04%

C.

18.73%

解释:

B is correct.

考点:Capital Structure Theory: with tax

解析根据公式 VL=VD+VE=EBIT(1T)WACCV_L=V_D+V_E=\frac{EBIT\ast(1-T)}{WACC} 

VD = $1 million, D/E = 0.6, 求得VE = $1.67 million

代入VL = 2.67 =0.5(125%)WACC\frac{0.5\ast(1-25\%)}{WACC}  ,求得WACC = 14.04%

这道题用到的公式:V=EBIT*(1-T)/R,只是一个近似的公式对吗?

因为根据DCF模型,EBIT(1-T)其实并不等于每期的税后cash flow。

1 个答案
已采纳答案

maggie_品职助教 · 2020年03月08日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


你说没加折旧对吗?这是因为MM理论并不是要研究权责发生制和收付实现制之间的区别,而是研究最优资本结构是什么。所以它选取了损益表的数字,忽略了折旧这种会受各种会计计量方法影响的科目,其实是简化研究问题了。


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2021-03-17 17:49 1 · 回答

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2020-11-28 18:55 1 · 回答

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2020-11-19 04:16 1 · 回答

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2020-09-15 09:08 1 · 回答

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2020-09-09 16:47 2 · 回答