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Infinite · 2020年03月03日

问一道题:NO.PZ2020021203000073

问题如下:

A seven-month call option pays dividends of USD 0.5 in three months and six months. The strike price is USD 40. Assume a constant risk-free rate of 8% per annum (annually compounded) for all maturities. Is it ever optimal to exercise the option before maturity? Explain.

选项:

解释:

It is only optimal to exercise immediately before a dividend payment. Immediately before the three-month payment, the option holder should wait, because there are three months until the next dividend payment and K - K* is greater than the dividend payment:

KK=40401.080.25=0.76>0.5K-K^\ast=40-\frac{40}{1.08^{0.25}}=0.76>0.5

Exercise can be optimal immediately before the six-month dividend payment because there is only one month to maturity and K - K* is less than the dividend payment:

KK=40401.081/12=0.26<0.5K-K^\ast=40-\frac{40}{1.08^{1/12}}=0.26<0.5

"在三个月的时候不行权的话用执行价格折现应该是4/12个月份呀为什么答案用的3/12" 看到有位同学问的这个问题,他应该问的是公式里是x-xe^(rf(T-t), 7个月的option, 在三个月的时候行权,大T-小t ,不应该是(7-3)/12=1/3吗?

3 个答案

orange品职答疑助手 · 2020年03月05日

@安安鱼

李老师上课讲的板书如下图所示。对应本题里,应该是站在t=6月这个节点上去判断。但如果判断的时点和到期日之间,还存在着分红时间点的话,那应该代入这个时间点到下个分红时间点的T,而不是这个时点到期权行权日的T。

安安鱼 · 2020年03月04日

还是不懂为什么是3/12按照李老师讲的应该是4/12

orange品职答疑助手 · 2020年03月03日

同学你好,这边应该是三个月的间隔,应该是这一次支付股利的时刻,到下一次支付股利的时刻,中间的时间。

如果这一期之后期权会到期,那么折现时间应该是T-ti 。否则就是 ti+1 - ti

你可以看一下郑振龙这里的书(10.13式),这个结论是没错的,但它推导的过程比较难。我觉得这个小点记忆一下性价比比较高。

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NO.PZ2020021203000073问题如下A seven-month call option pays vin of US0.5 in three months ansix months. The strike priis US40. Assume a constant risk-free rate of 8% per annum (annually compoun for all maturities. Is it ever optimto exercise the option before maturity? Explain. It is only optimto exercise immeately before a vinpayment. Immeately before the three-month payment, the option holr shoulwait, because there are three months until the next vinpayment anK - K* is greater ththe vinpayment:K−K∗=40−401.080.25=0.76 0.5K-K^\ast=40-\frac{40}{1.08^{0.25}}=0.76 0.5K−K∗=40−1.080.2540​=0.76 0.5Exercise coptimimmeately before the six-month vinpayment because there is only one month to maturity anK - K* is less ththe vinpayment:K−K∗=40−401.081/12=0.26 0.5K-K^\ast=40-\frac{40}{1.08^{1/12}}=0.26 0.5K−K∗=40−1.081/1240​=0.26 0.5这里说annually compoun,怎么用e折现呢,e不是连续复利嘛?

2024-08-05 20:09 1 · 回答

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