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朵朵0927 · 2020年02月29日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016082406000085

问题如下:

You are the credit risk manager for Bank Happy. Bank Happy holds Treasuries for USD 500 million: one large loan that has a positive probability of default for USD 400 million and another loan that has a positive probability of default for USD 100 million. The defaults are uncorrelated. The bank computes a credit VAR at 1% using CreditRisk+. Which of the following statements made about the VAR by the analyst who works for you is necessarily wrong?

选项:

A.

The VAR or WCL can be equal to zero.

B.

The expected loss on the portfolio exceeds the VAR.

C.

The expected loss on the portfolio is necessarily smaller than the VAR.

D.

None of the above statements is wrong.

解释:

ANSWER: C

The credit VAR could be zero. For instance, assume that the PD is 0.003. The joint probability of no default is then (10.003)(10.003)=99.4%{(1-0.003)}{(1-0.003)}=99.4\%. Because this is greater than the 99% confidence level, the worst loss is zero. The expected loss, however, would be 0.3% assuming zero recovery, which is greater than VAR.

请教下老师,这道题可以从正态分布的var满足资可加性这条性质解答吗?

1 个答案

orange品职答疑助手 · 2020年03月01日

同学你好,信用风险里UL=VaR=WCL-EL,你说的正态分布下VaR满足次可加性是市场风险里的,我没明白该怎么用来解释这里啊。或者同学你可以具体说一说你的逻辑想法呢

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