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QEWS · 2020年02月27日

问一道题:NO.PZ2017092702000017

问题如下:

Given a stated annual interest rate of 6% compounded quarterly, the level amount that, deposited quarterly, will grow to £25,000 at the end of 10 years is closest to:

选项:

A.

£461.

B.

£474.

C.

£836.

解释:

A is correct.

To solve for an annuity (A) payment, when the future value (FV), interest rate, and number of periods is known, use the following equation:

lFV=A[(1+rsm)mN1rm]25,000=A[(1+0.064)4×1010.064]{l}FV=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{r_s}m)}^{mN}-1}{\frac rm}\rbrack}\\25,000=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{0.06}4)}^{4\times10}-1}{\frac{0.06}4}\rbrack}

A=460.68

为什么这个题的FV是负的?

1 个答案
已采纳答案

星星_品职助教 · 2020年02月27日

同学你好,

FV正负只代表方向,收到FV一方的角度就是正的,付出FV一方就是负的。可以自己设。

但要注意PV和PMT的符号也要随着FV设定的角度而变化

QEWS · 2020年02月27日

为什么我PV=0 FV=25000 I/Y=6/4 N=40 求出来PMT=609.90?

星星_品职助教 · 2020年02月28日

这个输入的过程没错,结果应该是-460.68

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NO.PZ2017092702000017问题如下Given a stateannuinterest rate of 6% compounquarterly, the level amount that, positequarterly, will grow to £25,000 the enof 10 years is closest to:A.£461.B.£474.C.£836. A is correct. To solve for annuity (payment, when the future value (FV), interest rate, annumber of perio is known, use the following equation:lFV=A[(1+rsm)mN−1rm]25,000=A[(1+0.064)4×10−10.064]{l}FV=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{r_s}m)}^{mN}-1}{\frrm}\rbrack}\\25,000=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{0.06}4)}^{4\times10}-1}{\frac{0.06}4}\rbrack}lFV=A[mr​(1+mrs​​)mN−1​]25,000=A[40.06​(1+40.06​)4×10−1​]A=460.68计算器按法6%/4=1.5%。所以I/Y=1.5,N=10*4=40,FV=25000,PV=0,CPT PMT=-460.6775. 为什么I/Y用的不是EAR/4?

2023-07-20 19:25 1 · 回答

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2022-08-22 16:02 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2017092702000017 问题如下 Given a stateannuinterest rate of 6% compounquarterly, the level amount that, positequarterly, will grow to £25,000 the enof 10 years is closest to: A.£461. B.£474. C.£836. A is correct. To solve for annuity (payment, when the future value (FV), interest rate, annumber of perio is known, use the following equation:lFV=A[(1+rsm)mN−1rm]25,000=A[(1+0.064)4×10−10.064]{l}FV=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{r_s}m)}^{mN}-1}{\frrm}\rbrack}\\25,000=A{\lbrack\frac{{(1+\frac{0.06}4)}^{4\times10}-1}{\frac{0.06}4}\rbrack}lFV=A[mr​(1+mrs​​)mN−1​]25,000=A[40.06​(1+40.06​)4×10−1​]A=460.68计算器按法6%/4=1.5%。所以I/Y=1.5,N=10*4=40,FV=25000,PV=0,CPT PMT=-460.6775. 老师,为什么这道题不求EAR呢?为什么我觉得用EAR除以4,才是最终计算器要带入的1/Y呢

2022-05-08 17:48 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2017092702000017 从那句话可以推断出这道题目的PV是0呢?

2021-11-16 20:38 1 · 回答