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doris · 2020年02月20日

问一道题:NO.PZ2016082406000037

问题如下:

The capital structure of HighGear Corporation consists of two parts: one five- year zero-coupon bond with a face value of $100 million and the rest is equity. The current market value of the firm’s assets is $130 million and the expected rate of change of the firm’s value is 25%. The firm’s assets have an annual volatility of 30%. Assume that firm value is lognormally distributed, with constant volatility. The firm’s risk management division estimates the distance to default using the Merton model, or ln(KV)δτ+0.5σ2τστ\frac{\ln(\frac{\text{K}}{\text{V}})-\delta\tau+0.5\sigma^2\tau}{\sigma\sqrt\tau}Given the distance to default, the estimated default probability is

选项:

A.

2.74%

B.

12.78%

C.

12.79%

D.

30.56%

解释:

ANSWER: A

We compute z=ln(KV)δτ+0.5σ2τστ=ln(100130)25%×5+0.5×30%2×530%5=1.919z=\frac{\ln(\frac{\text{K}}{\text{V}})-\delta\tau+0.5\sigma^2\tau}{\sigma\sqrt\tau}=\frac{\ln(\frac{\text{100}}{\text{130}})-25\%\times5+0.5\times30\%^2\times5}{30\%\sqrt5}=-1.919. The PD is then N(z)=N(1.919)=2.749%N{(z)}=N{(-1.919)}=2.749\%.

在公式里到底是LN(V/F)还是LN(F/V)

不太懂,老师写的是V/F,这道题还有讲义都是F/V

这样子就会算错啊

1 个答案

orange品职答疑助手 · 2020年02月20日

同学你好,何老师写的没毛病呀,因为PD = N(-d2) = 1-N(d2),而老师写的是d1的表达式(d2和d1的关系,老师在这页也板书了)。建议同学这里把它 推一下,就不会搞混了


本题解析里的z其实是 -d2,也就是 -DD 。而违约概率等于N(-d2)