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胖柒柒 · 2020年02月19日

外汇管理,CFA三级,官网题目

 问题:Based on the information provided in Exhibit 1, the domestic currency value of Dias’s foreign investments most likely:

A.decreased because of changes in the domestic currency value of foreign asset holdings.

B.increased because of changes in the domestic currency value of UK assets but decreased because of changes in the domestic currency value of German assets.

C.increased because of changes in the domestic currency value of foreign asset holdings.

答案:C is correct. The domestic currency value of Dias’s portfolio of foreign assets most likely increased because of changes in the domestic currency value of foreign asset holdings. The domestic currency return of the portfolio of foreign assets is:


RDC = w1(1+RFC,GBP)(1+RFX,GBP) +w2(1+RFC,EUR)(1+RFX,EUR)−1

  = 0.659(86,000,000/83,400,000)(4.1025/3.8729) + 0.341(51,000,000/55,000,000)(3.5142/3.0359)

  = 0.659(1.0312)(1.0592) + 0.341(0.9273)(1.1575)

  = 0.659(1.0923) + 0.341(1.0734)

  = 0.0858

The calculations show that the domestic currency value of the portfolio of foreign assets increased because of changes (i.e., increases) in the domestic currency value of UK and German equity investments. Note:

w1=322,999,860/489,974,360=0.659

and

w2=166,974,500/489,974,360=0.341。老师这两个权重是怎么计算出来的?

2 个答案

xiaowan_品职助教 · 2020年02月27日

同学你好,从你截图的部分似乎是看不出具体的时间点,推断2013/1/1是当前的时间,我们站在当前的时间点,就要用当前的数据来进行计算哈~

非常抱歉,回答这个问题有些迟了。

胖柒柒 · 2020年02月27日

老师,没有关系,明白啦,谢谢

xiaowan_品职助教 · 2020年02月19日

同学你好,要将两种资产统一到一个货币上才可以计算权重,那么a1 = 834,000,000 * 3.8729, a2 = 55,000,000 *3.0359, 这样就都统一到BRL上,w1=a1/(a1+a2),  w2=a2/(a1+a2)

胖柒柒 · 2020年02月25日

老师,怎么没有用14年的数据做权重呢?

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