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sarahjia · 2020年02月06日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018062016000019 [ CFA I ]

问题如下图:

选项:

A.

B.

C.

解释:

  请问1st payment 中的$750(1+3%/4)^4*2  最后这个2是为什么要乘呢从哪来的呢一共不是三年吗为什么不是乘三呢 

1 个答案
已采纳答案

星星_品职助教 · 2020年02月06日

同学你好,

A/C 1里的钱是通过A/C2里产生的利息转过来的。所以A/C1里的第一笔750是在第一年末才由A/C2转过来的,所以在A/C1里只存在两年,同理,第二笔750在A/C1里只存在了1年。第三笔750刚进去还没产生复利效果。

所以只会有乘以2次方,1次方,最后一笔其实是乘以了0次方,但是不会有乘以3次方


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