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Gao · 2020年02月01日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018062003000208 [ CFA I ]

问题如下:

Nick and Joy are two dealers in America. A research report produced by Nick includes the following exhibit:

If Joy is quoting the USD/GBP cross-rate at 1.4210. Which of the following options is most accurate of the arbitrage profit?

选项:

A.

USD 32,000 per million GBP traded.

B.

GBP 29,000 per million USD traded.

C.

USD 29,000 per million GBP traded.

解释:

C is correct.

The USD/GBP cross-rate from Nick is (8.8318/6.3449) = 1.3920, which is lower than 1.4210 . To earn an arbitrage profit, a currency trader would buy GBP use 1.3920 and sell GBP use 1.4210, So the profit would be

GBP 1,000,000 × (1.4210 1.3920) = USD 29,000

考点: cross-rate

解析:

美元/英镑汇率为(8.8318/6.3449)= 1.3920,低于1.4210。为了获得套利利润,货币交易员会以1.3920的价格买进英镑,以1.4210卖出英镑,所以利润是

1000000英镑*(1.4210 - 1.3920)= 29000美元

为什么USD/GDB不是6.3449/8.8318

2 个答案

丹丹_品职答疑助手 · 2021年05月08日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


同学你好,先不看数字的问题,只单纯从货币的表示上:usd/gdb=(cny/gdb)/(cny/usd)明白了这个原理,同学只需要带进去相应的金额即可。请知悉


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加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!

源_品职助教 · 2020年02月03日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


因为GBP/USD=(CNY/GBP)÷(CNY/USD),所以只能写成解析中的形式,同学你列举的形式就写反了。


-------------------------------
加油吧,让我们一起遇见更好的自己!


AgnesWu · 2021年05月08日

这个地方还是没有太懂,为什么USD/GDB不是6.3449/8.8318,上面的解析没有看明白,麻烦请再讲一下

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