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PaisleyPPx · 2020年01月31日

问一道题:NO.PZ201710290100008801

* 问题详情,请 查看题干

问题如下:

Based on Exhibit 1, which statement is most likely correct?

选项:

A.

Company A has below-average liquidity risk.

B.

Company B has above-average solvency risk.

C.

Company A has made one or more acquisitions.

解释:

C is correct.

The presence of goodwill on Company A’s balance sheet signifies that it has made one or more acquisitions in the past. The current, cash, and quick ratios are lower for Company A than for the sector average. These lower liquidity ratios imply above-average liquidity risk. The total debt, long-term debt-to-equity, debt-to-equity, and financial leverage ratios are lower for Company B than for the sector average. These lower solvency ratios imply below-average solvency risk.

Current ratio is (35/35) = 1.00 for Company A, versus (48/28) = 1.71 for the sector average.

Cash ratio is (5 + 5)/35 = 0.29 for Company A, versus (7 + 2)/28 = 0.32 for the sector average.

Quick ratio is (5 + 5 + 5)/35 = 0.43 for Company A, versus (7 + 2 + 12)/28 = 0.75 for the sector average.

Total debt ratio is (55/100) = 0.55 for Company B, versus (63/100) = 0.63 for the sector average.

Long-term debt-to-equity ratio is (20/45) = 0.44 for Company B, versus (28/37) = 0.76 for the sector average.

Debt-to-equity ratio is (55/45) = 1.22 for Company B, versus (63/37) = 1.70 for the sector average.

Financial leverage ratio is (100/45) = 2.22 for Company B, versus (100/37) = 2.70 for the sector average.

老师 答案的debt 为什么直接用 total liability代替?

1 个答案

Olive_品职助教 · 2020年02月03日

嗨,努力学习的PZer你好:


Debt严格意义上指的是付息负债,不过考试大多数题目都不区分liability是否是付息的,这种情况默认debt就等于liability。


-------------------------------
虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!


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