问题如下图：
选项：
A. 
B. 
C. 
解释：
div paid 不是归类为CFF嘛。。。为什么此题算在了CFO里。。。完全懵逼了。。。
NO.PZ2016012101000104 45. 75. B is correct. All llamounts are in millions. Net income (NI) for 2010 is $35. This amount is the increase in retaineearnings, $25, plus the vin pai $10. preciation of $25 is aebato net income, anthe increases in accounts receivable, $5, anin inventory, $3, are subtractefrom net income because they are uses of cash. The crease in accounts payable is also a use of cash an therefore, a subtraction from net income. Thus, cash flow from operations is $25 + $10 + $25 – $3- $5–$7 = $45. 解析CFO的计算有直接法和间接法两种方法，根据题目给的AR、inventory和AP的条件可以确定应该是用间接法，间接法的CFO是从NI推出的，本题虽然没有给NI，但是给了RE和vin根据RE的BASE法则我们可以算出NI。期初RE+NI-vin期末RE，即120+NI-10=145，算出NI=35。再代入公式计算CFO=NI+p –Δinv–ΔA/R+ΔA/P=35+25-（48-45）-（43-38）+（29-36）=45。 如题，NI不一样。。。。。
NO.PZ2016012101000104 以及The company consirs vin paia financing activity这句话在这道题是有什么作用吗？vin pai来就是融资活动呀。
45. 75. B is correct. All llamounts are in millions. Net income (NI) for 2010 is $35. This amount is the increase in retaineearnings, $25, plus the vin pai $10. preciation of $25 is aebato net income, anthe increases in accounts receivable, $5, anin inventory, $3, are subtractefrom net income because they are uses of cash. The crease in accounts payable is also a use of cash an therefore, a subtraction from net income. Thus, cash flow from operations is $25 + $10 + $25 – $3- $5–$7 = $45. 解析CFO的计算有直接法和间接法两种方法，根据题目给的AR、inventory和AP的条件可以确定应该是用间接法，间接法的CFO是从NI推出的，本题虽然没有给NI，但是给了RE和vin根据RE的BASE法则我们可以算出NI。期初RE+NI-vin期末RE，即120+NI-10=145，算出NI=35。再代入公式计算CFO=NI+p –Δinv–ΔA/R+ΔA/P=35+25-（48-45）-（43-38）+（29-36）=45。请问为什么要加会preciation expense
the company clareanpaicash vin of $10 million按照老师课件讲的，这个地方可以算作non-operating item 在直接法第二步计算，而不是在BASE法则中吗？
AR是减，AP不应该是加吗？
