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rikkisong72 · 2020年01月16日

问一道题:NO.PZ2018091705000031

问题如下:

Allen is an investment manager, who recently recruited a new customer, Jack. Jack invested $200,000 in a wealth asset for 15 years that promises to offer an annual return of 12% before tax. The investment should be imposed a wealth tax of 5% each year. Calculate the post-tax value of the investment after 15 years later.

选项:

A.

$569,023

B.

$507,171

C.

$289,034

解释:

B is correct.

考点Wealth-based Taxes

解析这道题考法非常常规我们直接套用Wealth-based Taxes计算公式即可

FVIFWT=[(1+R)×(1TW)]NFVIF_{WT}={\lbrack(1+R)\times(1-T_W)\rbrack}^N

FV=200,000×[(1+0.12)×(10.05)]15=507,171FV=200,000\times{\lbrack(1+0.12)\times(1-0.05)\rbrack}^{15}=507,171

请问这道题如果用计算器按怎么输入?


如没有tax,是pv=2000,I/Y=12,N=15


有tax的话,这种题能用计算器按吗?

1 个答案

包包_品职助教 · 2020年01月16日

同学你好,如果有tax 的话,就不能用PMT 的现金流的形式算了。只能按照式子里列出来的去算

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NO.PZ2018091705000031 Allen is investment manager, who recently recruitea new customer, Jack. Jainveste$200,000 in a wealth asset for 15 years thpromises to offer annureturn of 12% before tax. The investment shoulimposea wealth tof 5% eayear. Calculate the post-tvalue of the investment after 15 years later. $569,023 $507,171 $289,034 B is correct. 考点Wealth-baseTaxes 解析这道题考法非常常规。我们直接套用Wealth-baseTaxes计算公式即可。 FVIFWT=[(1+R)×(1−TW)]NFVIF_{WT}={\lbrack(1+R)\times(1-T_W)\rbrack}^NFVIFWT​=[(1+R)×(1−TW​)]N FV=200,000×[(1+0.12)×(1−0.05)]15=507,171FV=200,000\times{\lbrack(1+0.12)\times(1-0.05)\rbrack}^{15}=507,171FV=200,000×[(1+0.12)×(1−0.05)]15=507,171 老师,如果realize了40%的话, 那投资了¥100, 每年赚¥8. 实现了40%,也就是卖了¥40,只有剩下的¥60继续投资么?

2021-08-15 12:34 1 · 回答

NO.PZ2018091705000031 Allen is investment manager, who recently recruitea new customer, Jack. Jainveste$200,000 in a wealth asset for 15 years thpromises to offer annureturn of 12% before tax. The investment shoulimposea wealth tof 5% eayear. Calculate the post-tvalue of the investment after 15 years later. $569,023 $507,171 $289,034 B is correct. 考点Wealth-baseTaxes 解析这道题考法非常常规。我们直接套用Wealth-baseTaxes计算公式即可。 FVIFWT=[(1+R)×(1−TW)]NFVIF_{WT}={\lbrack(1+R)\times(1-T_W)\rbrack}^NFVIFWT​=[(1+R)×(1−TW​)]N FV=200,000×[(1+0.12)×(1−0.05)]15=507,171FV=200,000\times{\lbrack(1+0.12)\times(1-0.05)\rbrack}^{15}=507,171FV=200,000×[(1+0.12)×(1−0.05)]15=507,171 确认一个细节 Accrual由于是针对增加的部分征税,所以是1+r*(1-t),而wealth tax是针对整体征税,所以是(1+r)*(1-t)。 这样区分应该是没问题的?

2021-05-11 09:29 1 · 回答