问题如下图:
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我使用计算器算 ,输入如下:I/Y=2.5 n=52 pmt=0 FV=100000,求PV,为什么不对啊
NO.PZ2017092702000005 问题如下 A client requires £100,000 one yefrom now. If the stateannurate is 2.50% compounweekly, the posit neetoy is closest to: A.£97,500. B.£97,532. C.£97,561. B is correbecause £97,531 represents the present value (PV) of £100,000 receiveone yefrom toy when toy’s posit earns a stateannurate of 2.50% aninterest compoun weekly, shown in the following equation (where FV is future value):PV = FVN(1 + rs /m)mN PV = £100,000(1 +0.025/52 )-52 PV = £97,531.58. 我用的计算器第三排按出来的,是对的吗?答案解析里怎么用的EAR公式?
NO.PZ2017092702000005问题如下A client requires £100,000 one yefrom now. If the stateannurate is 2.50% compounweekly, the posit neetoy is closest to:A.£97,500.B.£97,532.C.£97,561. B is correbecause £97,531 represents the present value (PV) of £100,000 receiveone yefrom toy when toy’s posit earns a stateannurate of 2.50% aninterest compoun weekly, shown in the following equation (where FV is future value):PV = FVN(1 + rs /m)mN PV = £100,000(1 +0.025/52 )-52 PV = £97,531.58. 为什么乘以N解析没看懂
NO.PZ2017092702000005问题如下A client requires £100,000 one yefrom now. If the stateannurate is 2.50% compounweekly, the posit neetoy is closest to:A.£97,500.B.£97,532.C.£97,561. B is correbecause £97,531 represents the present value (PV) of £100,000 receiveone yefrom toy when toy’s posit earns a stateannurate of 2.50% aninterest compoun weekly, shown in the following equation (where FV is future value):PV = FVN(1 + rs /m)mN PV = £100,000(1 +0.025/52 )-52 PV = £97,531.58. 老师请问,这道题用现金流计算行吗?N52 IY2.5%/52 FV100000 PMT 0 CPT PV,算出来不对
NO.PZ2017092702000005 £97,532. £97,561. B is correbecause £97,531 represents the present value (PV) of £100,000 receiveone yefrom toy when toy’s posit earns a stateannurate of 2.50% aninterest compoun weekly, shown in the following equation (where FV is future value): PV = FVN(1 + rs /m)mN PV = £100,000(1 +0.025/52 )-52 PV = £97,531.58. 发现数量里的题,都不考虑coupon吗?但在固收的题里,却要都考虑coupon,这是为啥? 另外货币市场1年期债券,只要题中没提到scount rate,就是算折现,而不是打折,对吗?
NO.PZ2017092702000005 PV = £100,000(1 +0.025/52 )-52为什么是负52次方