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Sure · 2019年12月15日

问一道题:NO.PZ201803130100000602 第2小题 [ CFA III ]

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老师,好像对于goal2是用的后付模式来算,是否也应该用先付模式?问题如下图:

1 个答案

Shimin_CPA税法主讲、CFA教研 · 2019年12月16日

嗨,从没放弃的小努力你好:


可以听一下原版书课后题对应的讲解,这题是R13的18题。

Goal 2在计算上有陷阱,因为分子分母的次方数不一致。而我们用计算器第3行时,后付模式是从1次方开始的。后付可以用我手写这种方法:

课后题讲解用的是先付的方法:提取了相同项100000/1.022, 现金流从0时刻开始为1.


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虽然现在很辛苦,但努力过的感觉真的很好,加油!


hyi725 · 2024年06月21日

比何老师的课后题解法更好!!!一百个赞

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NO.PZ201803130100000602 问题如下 Construtheoverall goals-baseasset allocation for the Armstrongs given their three goalsanAbbott’s suggestion for investing any excess capital. Show yourcalculations.Show your calculations. Guiline Answer:■ The mole thshoulselectefor eagois the one thoffers the highest return given the time horizon anrequireprobability of success.■ Approximately 16.4%, 12.7%, 50.4%, an20.5% shoulinvestein Moles an respectively. The appropriate goals-baseallocation for the Armstrongs is follows:Supporting calculations:For Go1, whiha time horizon of five years ana requireprobability of success of 85%, Mole C shoulchosen because its 4.4% expectereturn is higher ththe expectereturns of all the other moles. The present value of Go1 is calculatefollows:N = 5, FV = –5,000,000, I/Y = 4.4%; CPT PV = $4,031,508 (or $4.03 million)So, approximately 50.4% of the totassets of $8 million (= $4.03 million/$8.00 million) shoulallocateto Mole For Go2, whiha time horizon of 10 years ana requireprobability of success of 99%, Mole B shoulchosen because its 2.2% expectereturn is higher ththe expectereturns of all the other moles. The present value of Go2 is calculatefollows:PV=$100,000/(1.022)1+$100,000(1.03)1/(1.022)2+$100,000(1.03)2/(1.022)3+...+$100,000(1.03)9/(1.022)10PV = $1,013,670 (or $1.01 million)So, approximately 12.7% of the totassets of $8 million (= $1.01 million/$8.00 million) shoulallocateto Mole For Go3, whiha time horizon of 25 years ana requireprobability of success of 75%, Mole shoulchosen because its 7.5% expectereturn is higher ththe expectereturns of all the other moles. The present value ofGo3 is calculatefollows:N = 25, FV = –10,000,000, I/Y = 7.5%; CPT PV = $1,639,791 (or $1.64 million)So, approximately 20.5% of the totassets of $8 million (= $1.64 million/$8.00 million) shoulallocateto Mole Finally, the surplus of $1,315,032 (= $8,000,000 – $4,031,508 – $1,013,670 –$1,639,791), representing 16.4% (= $1.32 million/$8.00 million), shoulinvestein Mole A following Abbott’s suggestion. 想到一个简便算法,辛苦老师帮忙看看是否可以适用其他情况1.首先知道生活费需要是先付年金形式,调整计算器之后pmt=-100000,I/Y=-0.78,N=10,FV=0,算出pv=1036127.84由于是从第二年末inflation才开始调整的,所以I/Y=-0.78对应的调整之后的数据,而本身还有一年2.2%未计算进去,所以还需要再多除一个(1+2.2%)通过数据验证是没问题的,所以想看看这种取巧的方法能否在之后其他类似的题中推广,也就不存在理解起来比较费劲的问题了

2024-06-23 10:34 1 · 回答

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2024-05-02 14:12 1 · 回答

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2024-02-09 14:42 1 · 回答

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2024-01-31 21:18 1 · 回答

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2024-01-21 17:25 1 · 回答