问题如下图:
选项:
A.
B.
C.
解释:
为啥说涉及到unrealized capital gain就是blend taxing 的算法,怎么从字面上去理解blend taxing 的涵义呢?
NO.PZ201511200300000706 能不能详细说明一下适用于哪些情景,看到相关题目能够反应出来
老师,请问这题是考察blentax还是哪个?不知道该用何种方法解决,请详细讲解一下,谢谢啦
€665,747. €678,158. C is correct. r* = r(1–pcgtcg) = 0.075(1–(0.5)(0.10)) = 0.075(1–0.05) = 0.07125 T* = tcg(1–pcg)/(1–pcgtcg) = 0.10[(1–0.5)/(1–0.5× 0.10)] = 0.052632 FVIFTaxable = (1 + r*)n(1–T*) + T*–(1–B)tcg, B = 1 FV =€250,000×[(1+0.07125)15(1–0.052632) + 0.052632] = €678,158能帮忙画饼图一下吗?
€665,747. €678,158. C is correct. r* = r(1–pcgtcg) = 0.075(1–(0.5)(0.10)) = 0.075(1–0.05) = 0.07125 T* = tcg(1–pcg)/(1–pcgtcg) = 0.10[(1–0.5)/(1–0.5× 0.10)] = 0.052632 FVIFTaxable = (1 + r*)n(1–T*) + T*–(1–B)tcg, B = 1 FV =€250,000×[(1+0.07125)15(1–0.052632) + 0.052632] = €678,158这题是画饼干的那个方法吗?是有realize有unrealizecg时候就要想这个方法吗?
€665,747. €678,158. C is correct. r* = r(1–pcgtcg) = 0.075(1–(0.5)(0.10)) = 0.075(1–0.05) = 0.07125 T* = tcg(1–pcg)/(1–pcgtcg) = 0.10[(1–0.5)/(1–0.5× 0.10)] = 0.052632 FVIFTaxable = (1 + r*)n(1–T*) + T*–(1–B)tcg, B = 1 FV =€250,000×[(1+0.07125)15(1–0.052632) + 0.052632] = €678,158这一提B为什么等于1呢 不是等于17500吗